CUET Unit 7: Political Institutions in India - Political Science Coaching Centre

Created by

Dr. S. H. Sarkar

CUET Unit 7: Political Institutions in India

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1. Match List-I with List-II: (CUET UG 2024)

(1) (A)-(II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

(2) (A)-(1), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

(3) (A)-(1), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

(4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (1), (D) - (II)

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2. What does BAMCEF stand for? (CUET UG 2024)

(1) Backward and Muslim Communities Employees Federation

(2) Backward and Minority Communities Education Federation

(3) Backward and Minority Communities Employees Federation

(4) Backward and Majority Communities Employees Federation

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3. The Mandal Commission was appointed by ________ Government at the Centre. (CUET UG 2024)

(1) Indian National Congress Party

(2) Bharatiya Janata Party

(3) Janata Party

(4) Samajwadi Party

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4. Who gave the strategy of 'non-Congressism'? (CUET UG 2024)

(1) Ram Manohar Lohia

(2) C. Natarajan Annadurai

(3) K. Kamaraj

(4) Karpoori Thakur

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5. Who proposed in 1963 that all senior Congressman should resign from office to make way for younger party workers? (CUET UG 2024)

(1) S. Nijalingappa

(2) V. V. Giri

(3) K. Kamaraj

(4) Indira Gandhi

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6. The constitution of Local Body Ombudsman was recommended by which of the following bodies? (CUET PG 2024)

1. Niti Ayog

2. Second Administrative Reform Commission

3. L.M.Singhvi Committee

4. Sarkaria Commission

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7. Which among the following is NOT covered under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution? (CUET PG 2024)

1. Right to livelihood

2. Right against solitary confinement

3. Right to freedom from noise pollution

4. Right to active euthanasia

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8. How many members are nominated to Rajya Sabha by the President of India? (CUET PG 2024)

1. 14

2. 12

3. 16

4. 20

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9. Which of the following statements is/are NOT CORRECT? (CUET PG 2024)

(A) First past the post system is followed for all the elections in India.

(B) Election Commission of India does not supervise Panchayat and municipal elections

(C) President of India cannot remove the Election Commissioner

(D) Appointment of more than one Election Commissioners in the Election Commission is mandatory.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) and (C) only.

2. (A), (B) and (C) only.

3. (A), (B), (C) and (D).

4. (B), (C) and (D) only.

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10. Which of the following writs is issued by Supreme Court in case of illegal detention of a person? (CUET PG 2024)

1. Habeas Corpus

2. Mandamus

3. Quo-warranto

4. Certiorari

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11. Match List-I with List-II (CUET PG 2024)

Match the following leaders with their roles in the making of Indian Constitution:

1. (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

2. (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

3. (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

4. (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

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12. Chronologically arrange the provisions of the Constitution according to the order of its appearance. (CUET PG 2024)

(A). Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment

(B). Protection of life and personal liberty

(C). Protection against arbitrary arrest

(D). Freedom of speech and expression

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A), (B), (C), (D).

2. (A), (D), (B), (C).

3. (B), (A), (D), (C).

4. (C), (B), (D), (A).

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13. Consider the following statements: (CUET PG 2024)

(A). The President cannot send back a Constitutional amendment bill for recommendation to the Parliament.

(B). The Judiciary also have the power to amend the Constitution.

(C). The State legislatures cannot initiate any Bill for amendment of the Constitution.

(D). The Parliament cannot amend the 'basic features' of the Constitution.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A), (B) and (D) only.

2. (A), (C) and (D) only.

3. (A), (B), (C) and (D).

4. (B), (C) and (D) only.

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14. The President can dissolve Lok Sabha on- (CUET PG 2024)

1. the recommendation of Chief Justice of India

2. the recommendation of Rajya Sabha

3. the recommendation of the Council of Ministers

4. the recommendation of the Lok Sabha

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15. Which of the following are true about a federal system? (CUET PG 2022)

A federal system is based on a constitutional division of power.

A. In a federal system the power remains centralised.

B. A federal system is an innovation of modern times to deal with the issues of mass democracies.

C. In a federal system the regional units participate in the decision-making process at federal level electorally.

D. It is characterised by primacy of territorial representation.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Only A, B, C, D

(2) Only A, C, D, E

(3) Only A, B, C

(4) Only B, C, D, E

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16. Which of the following is incorrect about a Money Bill? (CUET PG 2022)

(1) The bill deals with all or any provisions under article 110 of the Constitution.

(2) The Money Bill has to be so certified by the Speaker of the House of the People.

(3) The Money Bill has to be introduced in the House of the People first.

(4) Both the Houses of the Parliament enjoy equal powers with respect to a Money Bill.

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17. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. (CUET PG 2022)

Assertion A: Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.

Reason R: The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A

(3) A is correct but R is not correct

(4) A is not correct but R is correct

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18. Which Constitutional Amendment abolished the privy purses and privileges of former rulers of Princely States? (CUET PG 2022)

(1) The Constitution (Twenty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1971

(2) The Constitution (Twenty-fifth Amendment) Act, 1971

(3) The Constitution (Twenty-sixth Amendment) Act, 1971

(4) The Constitution (Twenty-seventh Amendment) Act, 1971

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19. Which Constitutional Amendment ended the Parts A, B and C categories of States and implemented the States Reorganisation Scheme? (CUET PG 2022)

(1) The Constitution (Fourth Amendment) Act, 1955

(2) The Constitution (Fifth Amendment) Act, 1955

(3) The Constitution (Sixth Amendment) Act, 1956

(4) The Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956

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20. Which Fundamental Rights are available to all persons? (CUET PG 2022)

A. Protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20)

B. Protection of life and personal liberty (Article 21)

C. Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases (Article 22)

D. Freedom of religion (Article 25-28)

E. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste or place of birth (Article 15)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Only B, C and D

(2) Only A, B and C

(3) Only B, C, D and E

(4) Only A, B, C and D

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21. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. (CUET PG 2022)

Assertion A: The powers within the Supervisory Jurisdiction of the High Courts are both administrative and judicial in nature.

Reason R: Article 227(1) gives the High Courts power of Superintendence over all courts and tribunals within their territorial and constitutional jurisdiction.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A

(3) A is correct but R is not correct

(4) A is not correct but R is correct

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22. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. (CUET PG 2022)

Assertion A: Power of judicial review is considered as part of the basic structure of the Constitution.

Reason R: The Supreme Court is endowed with the power of judicial review to ensure judicial independence and protection of rights.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A

(3) A is not correct but R is correct

(4) A is correct but R is not correct

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23. Which was the first reported case of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) seeking relief for the under trial prisoners in jails? (CUET PG 2022)

(1) Anil Yadav Vs State of Bihar, 1981

(2) Hussainara Khatoon Vs State of Bihar, 1979

(3) Khatri Vs State of Bihar, 1981

(4) Veena Sethi Vs State of Bihar. 1982

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24. The Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976 added three words to the Preamble of the Constitution of India. (CUET PG 2022)

A. Socialist

B. Secular

C. Integrity

D. Unity

E. Federal

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Only A, B and C

(2) Only B, C and D

(3) Only C, D and E

(4) Only A, C and E

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25. Which Constitutional Amendment lowered the voting age from 21 years to 18 years? (CUET PG 2022)

(1) 58th Amendment Act, 1987

(2) 61st Amendment Act, 1988

(3) 64th Amendment Act, 1990

(4) 65th Amendment Act, 1990

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26. Parliament may by law: (CUET PG 2022)

A. extend the jurisdiction of a High Court

B. establish a common High Court for two or more States

C. constitute a High Court for a Union Territory

D. establish administrative tribunal for each State

E. appoint judges of the High Courts

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

(1) Only A, B, C and D

(2) Only B, C, D and E

(3) Only A, B, D and E

(4) Only A, C, D and E

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27. Which of the following is/are correct? (CUET PG 2022)

A. Article 143 provides for the power of President to consult Supreme Court.

B. The opinion of the Supreme Court is not binding.

C. The Supreme Court is not bound to give opinion on the subject so referred.

D. The Supreme Court would respectfully decline to answer with reference if it is improper, inadvisable and undesirable.

E. The Supreme Court is bound to give opinion.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Only A, B and C

(2) Only B, C and D

(3) Only B, C, D and E

(4) Only A, B, C, D

(5) Wrong option

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28. The Parliament of India consists of: (CUET PG 2022)

A. The House of the People

B. The Council of States

C. The President

D. The Prime Minister

E. The Speaker

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Only A, B and C

(2) Only B, C and D

(3) Only C, D and E

(4) Only A, B and E

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29. Who in the Constituent Assembly, said that 'the Doctrine of Independence was not to be raised to the level of a dogma so as to enable the judiciary to function as a kind of Super Legislature or Super Executive"? (CUET PG 2022)

(1) N. Madhava Rao

(2) K.M. Munshi

(3) N.G. Ayyangar

(4) A.K. Ayyar

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30. Which of the following articles were not inserted by the Forty-second Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976? (CUET PG 2022)

A. Article 21A

B. Article 31A

C. Article 39A

D. Article 43A

E. Article 48A

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Only A and B

(2) Only B and C

(3) Only C and D

(4) Only D and E

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31. Reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the House of the People is provided under which article of the Constitution? (CUET PG 2022)

(1) Article 330

(2) Article 243 D

(3) Article 243 T

(4) Article 334

Article 243D of the Constitution of India deals with the reservation of seats in Panchayats:

Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
The number of seats reserved for these groups should be roughly proportional to their population in the area.
Women
At least one-third of the total number of seats should be reserved for women.
Chairpersons
The offices of Chairpersons should be reserved for the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and women.
Legislatures
State Legislatures can make provisions for reserving seats or offices of Chairpersons for backward classes of citizens.
Expiration
The reservation of seats and offices of Chairpersons ends when the period specified in Article 334 expires.

______________

Article 243T of the Constitution of India deals with the reservation of seats and offices in municipalities. It states that:
Seats
A municipality must reserve seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. The number of reserved seats must be proportional to the population of these groups in the municipality. At least one-third of the reserved seats must be reserved for women from these groups.
Chairpersons
The offices of Chairpersons in municipalities must be reserved for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and women.
The seats can be allotted by rotation to different constituencies in a municipality.

______________

Article 334 of the Constitution of India states that the reservation of seats and special representation for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the House of the People and in the Legislative Assemblies of the States will end after a certain period. The period of reservation has been extended several times, most recently to 2019 by the 105th Amendment.

While reservation is an important tool for social justice, efforts should also be made to promote diversity and inclusion in all sectors. This can be achieved by creating a level playing field for all individuals, irrespective of their caste or community.

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32. Which of the Constitutional provisions doesn't/don't come within the legislative jurisdiction of the Legislature of a State? (CUET PG 2022)

A. Matters relating to clause 3 of article 16

B. Matters relating to article 32

C. Matters relating to article 33

D. Matters relating to article 34

E. Matters relating to clause 4 of article 16

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Only A, B, C and D

(2) Only B, C, D and E

(3) Only A, C, D and E

(4) Only A, B, D and E

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33. Asymmetrical features of federalism in India include: (CUET PG 2022)

A. Fifth Schedule

B. Sixth Schedule

C. Article 371 A

D. Article 371 G

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Only A, B and C

(2) Only B, C and D

(3) A, B, C and D

(4) Only A, B and D

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34. The term of the Lok Sabha was extended to six years by which of the following amendment? (CUET PG 2023)

1. 41st Constitutional Amendment Act

2. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act

3. 43rd Constitutional Amendment Act

4. 44th Constitutional Amendment Act

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35. Match List-I with List-II : (CUET PG 2023)

1. (A)-(1); (B)-(II); (C)-(III); (D)-(IV)

2. (A)-(IV); (B)-(III); (C)-(II); (D)-(1)

3. (A)-(III); (B)-(II): (C)-(IV); (D)-(1)

4. (A)-(II); (B)-(III); (C)-(I); (D)-(IV)

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36. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the State falls under its (CUET PG 2023)

1. Advisory jurisdiction

2. Appellate jurisdiction

3. Original jurisdiction

4. Writ jurisdiction

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37. Which of the following are correct about the Governor of a State? (CUET PG 2023)

The Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President.
The minimum age for getting appointed as a Governor is 30 years.
The President conducts the Oath of the Governor.
The Governor has the power to grant pardons and to suspend, remit or commute sentences in certain cases.
The Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act mandates both the States to share the emoluments and allowances of the Governor in case the same person is appointed as Governor of two States.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. C, D and E only

2. A, C, D and E only

3. A, B and C only

4. A, D and E only

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38. The first delimitation was carried out under whose office? (CUET PG 2023)

1. Prime Minister

2. President

3. Union Minister of Law

4. Chief Justice

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39. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): (CUET PG 2023)

Assertion (A): Reservation of a State bill for the assent of the President is a discretionary power of the Governor.

Reason (R): This could be achieved through amending Article 156 of the Indian Constitution.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

3. (A) is true but (R) is false

4. (A) is false but (R) is true

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40. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): (CUET PG 2023)

Assertion (A): Judicial review is a process to restrain the executive or the legislature from exercising power which may not be sanctioned by the Constitution.

Reason (R): The source of the power of judicial review in India is Article 12 of the Constitution.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

3. (A) is true but (R) is false

4. (A) is false but (R) is true

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41. Which one of the following does not find mention in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution? (CUET PG 2023)

1. Dignity of the individual

2. Dignity of the Constitution

3. Fraternity

4. Unity and integrity of the nation

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42. Arrange the following fundamental rights in the right order: (CUET PG 2023)

Right to constitutional remedies
Right to life
Right to freedom
Right to equality

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. D, C, B, A

2. C, D, A, B

3. C, B, A, D

4. D, C, A, B

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43. Article 226 of the Indian Constitution deals with (CUET PG 2023)

1. transfer of a judge

2. appointment of acting Chief Justice

3. appointment of additional judges

4. power of High Courts to issue certain writs

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44. Which of the following taxes does not come under the Union List? (CUET PG 2023)

1. Corporation tax

2. Capitation tax

3. Taxes on income other than agricultural income

4. Taxes on the capital of companies

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45. When the President of India addresses a joint session of the Parliament, who presides over the session? (CUET PG 2023)

1. Speaker of the Lok Sabha

2. Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

3. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

4. No one presides over the session

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46. Which one of the following is the largest committee of the Parliament? (CUET PG 2023)

1. The Committee on Public Accounts

2. The Committee on Estimates

3. The Committee on Public Undertakings

4. The Committee on Petitions

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47. Match List-I with List-II: (CUET PG 2023)

1. (A)-(II); (B)-(IV); (C)-(I); (D)-(III)

2. (A)-(II); (B)-(IV); (C)-(III); (D)-(1)

3. (A)-(IV); (B)-(1); (C)-(III); (D)-(II)

4. (A)-(III); (B)-(IV); (C)-(1); (D)-(II)

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48. Arrange the following provisions according to the Constitution of India : (CUET PG 2023)

Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion
Protection of interests of minorities
Prohibition of employment of children in factories
Protection in respect of conviction for offences

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, D, C

2. B, A, C, D

3. C, D, B, A

4. D, C, A, B

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49. In the history of Parliament of India, how many times the parliamentary proceedings were censured? (CUET PG 2023)

1. Never

2. Once

3. Twice

4. Thrice

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50. It has been found about the Election Commission of India (CUET PG 2023)

The end of emergency led to decline of the Election Commission of India
In the 1990s, the Commission faced regulatory activism
The assertiveness of the Election Commission was largely due to an alert media and strong opposition
Even, the Chief Election Commissioner, T. N. Seshan contributed to protecting the sanctity of democratic elections

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and C only

2. B, C and D only

3. A, C and D only

4. A, B and D only

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51. Given below are two statements: (CUET PG 2023)

Statement: The idea of single citizenship in the constitution of India is adapted from British constitution

Statement II: Fundamental duties under article 51-A of Indian constitution is adapted from French constitution

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is incorrect

(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is correct

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52. Given below are two statements read the following statements: (CUET PG 2023)

Statement I: A floor test is not the platform to resolve interparty dispute.

Statement II: The principle's on limited discretion is applicable to governor B S Koshyari only.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is incorrect

(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is correct

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53. Discretionary power means: (CUET PG 2023)

(1) Power to rule lawlessly.

(2) Power to protect people of all religions.

(3) Freedom to do thing as per law or rule.

(4) The power or freedom to decide on a course of action.

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54. Supreme Court reffered Nabam Rebia case to a larger bench because of contradictory reasoning means the case was: (CUET PG 2023)

(A) relevant earlier judgement, of a High Court.

(B) relevant earlier judgement of a smaller bench.

(C) based on reasonings similar in nature.

(D) based on such reasoning which were denying the truth by asserting the opposite.

(1) (A), (B)

(2) (B), (C)

(3) (A), (C)

(4) (B), (D)

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55. Sarkaria Commission (1983) was related to (CUET PG 2021)

1. Centre-State relations

2. corruption

3. election

4. boundary dispute

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56. R. Bommai v. Union of India judgement pertained to (CUET PG 2021)

1. Inter-State Water Dispute

2. Article 356

3. Anti-Defection

4. Fundamental Rights

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57. 7th Schedule of Constitution of India contains (CUET PG 2021)

1. Union list

2. State list

3. Concurrent list

4. All of these

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58. Which Article of the Constitution of India states "The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister"? (CUET PG 2021)

1. Article 73

2. Article 74

3. Article 75

4. Article 76

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59. Indian Parliament comprises (CUET PG 2021)

1. The President

2. Lok Sabha

3. Rajya Sabha

4. All of these

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60. What was the duration of the Constituent Assembly? (CUET PG 2021)

1. Two years, ten months and seventeen days

2. Two years, eleven months and seventeen days

3. Three years, eleven months and seventeen days

4. Four years, eleven months and seventeen days

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61. Which Article of the Constitution of India contains the provision for Financial Emergency in the Constitution of India? (CUET PG 2021)

1. 352

2. 356

3. 360

4. 365

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62. Who coined the term Indian Constitution as a 'social document'? (CUET PG 2021)

1. Granville Austin

2. M. V. Pylee

3. Upendra Baxi

4. Rajni Kothari

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63. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India contains the provisions related to Anti Defection Law enacted by fifty-second Amendment Act, 1985? (CUET PG 2021)

1. Seventh Schedule

2. Eighth Schedule

3. Ninth Schedule

4. Tenth Schedule

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64. Which part of the Constitution of India deals with the Fundamental Rights? (CUET PG 2021)

1. Part II

2. Part III

3. Part IV

4. Part V

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65. Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India deals with municipalities and urban governance? (CUET PG 2021)

1. Ninth Schedule

2. Tenth Schedule

3. Eleventh Schedule

4. Twelfth Schedule

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66. Which among the following Schedule was added to the Constitution of India by the 73rd Amendment Act? (CUET PG 2021)

1. Ninth Schedule

2. Tenth Schedule

3. Eleventh Schedule

4. Twelfth Schedule

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67. Articles 52-62 of the Constitution of India are concerned with (CUET PG 2021)

1. The Prime Minister of India

2. The President of India

3. The Vice President of India

4. The Supreme Court of India

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68. All the popular and powerful leaders of Indian politics lost their prestige after the split in Congress after: (CUET UG 2023)

1. 1969

2. 1971

3. 1972

4. 1970

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69. Who was the leader of Congress (R)? (CUET UG 2023)

1. Morarji Desai

2. Lal Bahadur Shastri

3. Indira Gandhi

4. S. K. Patil

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70. The Congress Syndicate was led by. (CUET UG 2023)

A. N. Sanjeeva Reddy

B. Atulya Gosh

C. S. K. Patil

D. K. Kamaraj

E. S. Nijalingappa

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A

2. B and C

3. E and D

4. D

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71. Match List I with List II Match the leaders with their states. (CUET UG 2023)

1. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

2. A-III, B-IV. C-I, D-II

3. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

4. A-I. B-II, C-III, D-IV

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72. Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions. (46-50)

The Syndicate was the informal name given to a group of Congress leaders who were in control of the party organisation. It was led by K. Kamraj, former Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu and the President of the Congress party. It included powerful State leaders like S. K. Patil of Bombay city (later named Mumbai), S. Nijalingappa of Mysore (later Karnataka), N. Sanjeeva Reddy of Andhra Pradesh and Atulya Ghosh of West Bengal. Both Lal Bahadur Shastri and later Indira Gandhi owed their position to the support received from the Syndicate. This group had a decisive say in Indira Gandhi's first Council of Ministers and also in The policy formulation and implementation. After the Congress split the leaders of the syndicate and those owing allegiance to them stayed with the Congress (O), since it was Indira Gandhi's Congress (R) that won the test of popularity, all these big and powerful men of Indian politics lost their power and prestige after 1971.

The Syndicate refers to. (CUET UG 2023)

1. An elected representation of the party

2. A group of powerful and influential leaders within the congress

3. Parties with different ideologies

4. Chief ministers of various states

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73. Lal Bahadur Shashtri was a minister in union Cabinet from. (CUET UG 2023)

1. 1952-1956

2. 1954-1956

3. 1953-1956

4. 1951-1956

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74. In shastri Ji tenure India faced a war with country. (CUET UG 2023)

1. China

2. Tibbat

3. Pakistan

4. Bangladesh

75 / 82

75. What was the tenure of Shastri Ji as a Prime Minister of India. (CUET UG 2023)

1. 1964-1967

2. 1964-1966

3. 1963-1967

4. 1965-1967

76 / 82

76. Who coined the famous slogan Jai Jawan Jai Kisan. (CUET UG 2023)

1. Lal Bahadur Shastri

2. Khan Abdul Gaffar

3. Jawahar Lal Nehru

4. Mahatma Gandhi

77 / 82

77. Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions. (41-45)

Shastri was the country's Prime Minister from 1964 to 1966. During Shastri's brief Prime Ministership, the country faced two major challenges. While India was still recovering from the economic implications of the war with china, failed monsoons, drought and serious food crises presented a grave challenge. As discussed in the previous chapter, the country also faced a war with Pakistan in 1965. Shastri's famous slogan Jai Jawan Jai Kisan, symbolised the country's resolve to face both these challenges. Shastri's Prime Ministership came to an abrupt end on 10 January 1966, when he suddenly expired in Tashkent.

Why Lal Bahadur Shastri resigned from the position of Railway Minister. (CUET UG 2023)

1. Accepting moral responsibilities for railway accident

2. He was forced to resign

3. His party lost election

4. He was not healthy

78 / 82

78. Match List I with List II. (CUET UG 2023)

1. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

2. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

3. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

4. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

79 / 82

79. Who was the Chairman of Second Backward Classes Commission? (CUET UG 2023)

1. B. P. Mandal

2. Kanshi Ram

3. H. D. Deve Gowda

4. V. P Singh

80 / 82

80. Developments given made a long lasting impact on the politics of India in late 1980s and early 1990s. Arrange them in their chronological order. (CUET UG 2023)

A. The Defeat of the Congress Party

B. New economic Reforms

C. The Demolition of the disputed structure at Ayodhya

D. The Assassination of Rajiv Gandhi

E. The Rise of Mandal issue

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B, C, A, D, E

2. D, B, C, A, E

3. C, E, D, B. A

4. A, E, D, B, C

81 / 82

81. Match List I with List II. (CUET UG 2023)

1. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

2. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

3. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

4. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

82 / 82

82. Name the Indian President who proclaimed emergency in 1975. (CUET UG 2023)

1. Dr Rajendra Prasad

2. Lal Bahadur Shastri

3. Fakruddin Ali Ahmed

4. V. V Giri

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