Common University Entrance Test (CUET)
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Created by Dr. S. H. Sarkar

Unit 10: Governance and Public Policy in India Mock Test for WB SET December 2024

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1. Which Indian state first established the office of the Lokayukta in India? (NET June 2009)

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2. In which of the following Indian State the office of the Lokayukta was established first? (BHU MA 2016)

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3. The Institution of Lokayukta was created for the first time by which state? (WEST BENGAL SET 2020)

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4. The Lokayukta and Uplokayuktas Act was first passed in (University of Hyderabad M.A. 2012)

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5. What is the main purpose of creating the institution of Lokpal and Lokayukta? (GUJARAT SET JULY 2004)

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6. The recommendations for the constitution of Lok Pal and Lokayukta was first made by (WB SET 2017 Paper II)

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7. The creation of the institution of Lok Pal was first recommend by: (NET December 2004)

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8. The Lokpal and Lokayukta Bill 1968 passed by the Lok Sabha lapsed because (NET December 2012 Paper III)

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9. Which of the following Commissions/Committees recommended for the establishment of the Lokpal and Lokayukta for First time? (NET JUNE 2023 Shift II)

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10. Which one of the following committees / reports recommended the establishment of the institutions of Lokpal and Lokayukta? (BHU MA 2015)

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11. Vote on account means (NET December 2010 Paper II)

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12. Who stated that "Budget is a series of Goals with price tags attached"? (NET June 2012 Paper II)

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13. Union’s Public debt is part of (RAJASTHAN SET 2023)

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14. Which one of the following is the correct principle of budgeting? (RAJASTHAN SET 2023)

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15. The process of transferring funds from one budget head to another of the same department where there is a need for more expenditure is called (WEST BENGAL SET JANUARY 2023)

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16. Consider the following in relation to the coverage and entitlement under National Food Security Act (NFSA): (TELANGANA SET 2023)

A. Covers upto 75% of the rural population and 50% of the urban population under Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY)

B. AAY households are entitled to 35 kg of foodgrains per family per month

C. State-wise coverage under NFSA was determined by using the NSS Household Consumption Survey data

D. The State Governments shall identify the households under AAY as per guidelines applicable

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17. Which of the following is NOT matched correctly in relation to the year of enacting? (TELANGANA SET 2022)

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18. The purpose of employment guarantee schemes such as MGNREGA is (WEST BENGAL SET DECEMBER 2023)

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19. What are the features of MNREGA? (MAHARASHTRA SET 2019 PAPER II)

(a)   A person above the age of 14years is entitled to apply for work.

(b)   Any applicant is entitled to work within 15 days of his application.

(c)   It is limited to 100 days per household per year.

(d)   The applicant will be provided if possible within radius of 5 km.

Codes:

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20. Which of the following innovations are associated with the public employment programme Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)? (University of Hyderabad Ph.D 2022)

a. Universal rights-based approach

b. Well-defined terms and conditions of employment

c. Focus on Natural Resource Management and shock responsiveness

d. Decentralised planning and administration

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21. How many days of wage employment is guaranteed in a financial year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work in the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act? (CUET PG 2021)

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22. How many days of work is guaranteed under MGNREGA Scheme?  (JAMMU & KASHMIR SET JUNE 2022) 

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23. Who was the first Chairman of the 1st Administrative Reforms Commission? (WB SET 2017 Paper III)

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24. Arrange the following committees in order in which they appeared. Use the code given below: (NET December 2005)

i. G.S. Bajpai committee

ii. Santhanam committee

iii. Ashok Mehta committee

iv. Kothari committee

Code:

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25. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below: (NET June 2011 Paper II)

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26. Venkatachaliah Commission is associated with (WB PSC 2022)

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27. Who was the chairperson of the Second Administrative Reforms Commission? (Himachal Pradesh SET 2017)

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28. SAIL is: (NET December 2005)

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29. Right to Information Act (2005) primarily helps the cause of (NET December 2009 Paper II)

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30. Place the following legislative acts in chronological orders: (NET JUNE 2023 Shift II)

A. Right to Information Act

B. Consumer Protection Act

C. Right to Education Act

D. Lokpal and Lokayukta Act

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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31. Which of the following is/are true about amendment of RTI Act in 2019? (NET March 2023 Shift I)

A.    From a fixed term of five years, now the Commissioner holds office at the pleasure of Government.

B.     Now, there can be more than 10 Central Information Commissioners.

C.     Now, the salaries and allowances of Commissioner are also decided by the Government.

D.    Now, the age of retirement of Chief Information Commissioner will be 62 years.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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32. Match the leaders (List-I) with associated movements (List-II) by identifying the correct code: (WEST BENGAL SET 2020)

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33. The first Indian State that introduced law on RTI was (WEST BENGAL SET JANUARY 2023)

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34. Right to Information Act, 2005 mandates (KARNATAKA SET 2014 PAPER II)

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35. Which of the following is not correct about 'Right to Information'? (GUJARAT SET 2008)

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36. Consumers are disadvantaged when there is (University of Hyderabad MA 2017)

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37. When firms control prices, the result is (University of Hyderabad MA 2017)

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38. Consumer Protection Bill was passed by the Indian Parliament in the year: (SLET 17th March 2024)

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39. Given below are two statements: (JAMMU & KASHMIR SET JUNE 2022)

Statement I: Consumer Protection Act, 2019 gives consumers the right to redressal through e-filing of complaint.

Statement II: This Act has specifically included e-commerce transactions too.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

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40. The consumer is 'sovereign' when (University of Hyderabad MA 2017)

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41. Which one of the following is not a principle among the originally framed six principles of 'Citizen's Charter Movement'? (NET March 2023 Shift I)

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42. Citizen Charters Initiative was first launched by (KARNATAKA SET 2020 PAPER II)

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43. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the codes given below. (JAMMU & KASHMIR SET JUNE 2022)

Assertion (A): Citizen's Charter are significant in empowering citizens in democracy.

Reason (R): It augments good governance, accountability and transparency in system.

Codes:

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44. The concept and program of Citizens’ Charter was first initiated and launched in: (MAHARASHTRA SET 2023)

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45. The Citizens’ Charter is based on the following principles: (MAHARASHTRA SET 2021 PAPER II)

(a)   Wide publicity on the standards of  performance of public agencies

(b)   Assured quality of services

(c)   Access to information

(d)   Simplified grievance redressal

Codes:

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46. Which one of the following recommended the establishment of Ombudsman for Local Governments in India? (NET December 2009 Paper II)

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47. Apart from the composition and the power of the proposed Lokpal Anna Hazare's agitation generated yet another major public debate. Which was that debate? (KARNATAKA SET 2014 PAPER III)

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48. Who is the Chairman of Lokpal institution in India? (JNU MA 2020)

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49. Match List I with List II: (NET November 2021 Shift II)

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50. Which of the following are the advantages of e-governance? (WEST BENGAL SET DECEMBER 2023)

(I) It makes government more accountable.

(II) It minimises people's participation in government affairs.

(III) It lowers transaction cost.

(IV) It helps building trust between the government and citizens.

Select the right code from the following:

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51. In which year the ‘National E-Governance Plan’ started? (KERALA SET 2018 JULY)

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52. Which one among the following is not a type of Government initiatives in E-Governance? (KARNATAKA SET 2020 PAPER II)

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53. In order to promote e-Governance in a holistic manner, various policy initiatives and projects have been undertaken to develop core and support infrastructure. The following are part of it. (TELANGANA SET 2023)

A. State Data Centres (SDCs)

B. State Wide Area Networks (S.W.A.N)

C. Village Wide Area Networks (V.W.A. N)

D. Common Services Centres (CSCs)

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54. Which of the following are the benefits of e-governance? (JAMMU & KASHMIR SET JUNE 2022)

1. It makes government more accountable

2. It encourages bureaucratic tendencies

3. It minimises people's participation in government affairs

4. It lowers transaction costs.

5. It helps in building trust between government and citizen.

Codes:

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55. There are four types of e-Governance. Which one among the following is not a type of e-Govemance? (Madhya Pradesh SET 2022)

(i) Government to Government (G2G)

(ii) Government to Citizen (G2C)

(iii) Government to Business (G2B)

(iv) Government to Employee (G2E)

(v) Government to Market (G2M)

The correct answer code is :

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56. Find out the correct statements from the following- (NET August 2024 Shift II)

A. NITI Aayog like Planning Commission was also created by an executive resolution of the Government of India.

B. The Consumer Protection Act, 2023 has repealed and replaced the earlier Consumer Protection Act, 1986

C. The earliest democratic institution in the world for the redressal of citizen's grievance is the Russian institution of Ombudsman.

D. The First Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) of India recommended the setting up of Lokpal and Loakyukta.

E. The First ARC of India was headed by Morarji Desai.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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57. In India the Planning Commission was set up in the year (NET June 2010 Paper II)

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58. Which of the following Commissions does not have the constitutional status? (NET December 2011 Paper II)

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59. Match List I with List II: (NET March 2023 Shift II)

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60. Who is the first CEO of NITI Aayog? (MAHARASHTRA SET 2016 PAPER II)

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61. Which among the following statements is true about "Start Up India" Scheme? (JMI M.A. 2023)

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62. What does the new IIM 2017 offer? (JMI M.A. 2017)

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63. Which of the following are included in PM Modi's vision of Developed India as 'Panchpran'? (NET 2023 JUNE Shift I)

A.    Atmnirbhav Bharat

B.     Goal of Developed India.

C.     Security

D.    Unity and sense of duty

E.     Integrity.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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64. Who among the following states, "Public policy is whatever governments choose to do or not to do"? (DU MA 2019)

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65. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below: (GUJARAT SET 2021 DEC)

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66. Which one of the following institutions is responsible for Social Audit? (WEST BENGAL SET JANUARY 2023)

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67. ‘Social Audit’ means: (MAHARASHTRA SET 2021 PAPER II)

(a)   A process that enables an organization to assess benefits accrued

(b)   Measuring the extent to which an organization lives up to shared values and committed objectives

(c)   Helping an organization in budgetary planning process

(d)   Reviewing governmental expenditure

Codes:

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68. Which tool is used to measure NGOs social and ethical performance? (MAHARASHTRA SET 2023)

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69. Which of the following statements about social audit is not true? (GUJARAT SET 2023)

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70. Which one of the following is and example of Social Audit'? (DU MA 2018)

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71. The main objectives of social audit are to: (TELANGANA SET 2022)

1. Assess the physical and financial gaps between needs and resources available for local development.

2. Create awareness among beneficiaries and providers of local social and productive services.

3. Examine the various policy decision keeping in view of investors and marketers' interests and priorities.

4. Estimate the opportunity costs for stakeholders for not getting timely access to public services.

Choose the correct Code:

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72. Which of the following are objectives of social audits? (JAMMU & KASHMIR SET JUNE 2022)

Choose the correct one from the codes given below.

1. Centralised governance

2. Reduction in chances of corruption

3. Making people aware of their rights and entitlement

4. Assessment of financial and physical gaps

Codes:

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73. Who among the following coined the term Ecofeminism? (NET December 2021 and June 2022 Shift II)

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74. Who among the following authored the book 'The Rights of Man? (NET December 2021 and June 2022 Shift II)

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75. Assertion (A): Control over public administration is shifting from legislature to executive.

Reason (R): Parliament does not have sufficient time for detailed examination and scrutiny of governmental activities.

(NET December 2007)

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76. The Committee on Assurances of the Parliament of India is an instrument of (NET December 2012 Paper III)

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77. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding accountability and control over administration? (NET June 2023 Shift I)

A.     Administrative Accountability may refer to the legal and hierarchical locus of Responsibility

B.      Administrative responsibility has ethical and normative connotations

C.      Administrative responsibility implies that the public officials will adhere to the explicit and implicit values of proper administration and policy.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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78. Which of the following are the tools of executive control over administration? (NET June 2023 Shift I)

A.    Civil Service Code

B.     Staff agencies

C.     Budget

D.    Ordinances

E.     suits against public officials.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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79. Judiciary ensures accountability of administration through: (MAHARASHTRA SET 2020 PAPER II)

(a)   Curbing arbitrariness of administrative agencies

(b)   Safeguarding the rights and liberty of the citizens

(c)   Declaring ultra vires the acts of administration if they exceed their jurisdiction

Codes:

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80. Which of the following pairs constitutes the essence of Good Governance? (NET June 2009)

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81. "Good Governance" pertains to (WEST BENGAL SET DECEMBER 2023)

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82. Select the correct attributes of good governance by using the codes given below: (MAHARASHTRA SET 2016 PAPER II)

(i) Transparency

(ii) Accountability

(iii) Efficiency

(iv) Autonomy

Codes:

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83. Essence of ‘Good Governance’ lies in: (MAHARASHTRA SET 2023)

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84. The origin of contemporary resurgence of interest in good governance is credited to the publication of: (MAHARASHTRA SET 2023)

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85. Which one of the following is NOT a pillar of good governance? (KARNATAKA SET 2018 PAPER II)

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86. Which of the following is not provided by the 73rd Constitution (Amendment) Act? (WB SET 2015 Paper III)

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87. Which one of the following is not part of the XIth Schedule of the Constitution specifying the functions of Panchayats? (WB SET 2017 Paper III)

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88. Who brought out the report 'Revitalisation of PRIS for Democracy and Development? (NET August 2024 Shift II)

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89. Which one of the following committees is not associated with Panchayati Raj in India? (NET June 2012 Paper II)

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90. Who among the following had favoured Panchayati Raj System by giving the following statement in the Indian Constituent Assembly? "...in the interest of democracy, the villages may be trained in the art of self-government... We must be able to reform the villages and introduce democratic principles of government there..." (NET June 2013 Paper III)

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91. The responsibility of conducting free and fair elections to the Panchayati Raj institutions is vested with (WEST BENGAL SET 2020)

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92. With respect to Panchayati Raj, which of the following is/are true? (WEST BENGAL SET DECEMBER 2023)

(I) Social inclusion is not a part of the institutional design.

(II) Traditional institutions play a gatekeeping role.

(III) In most states, devolution of funds and functions has been ignored.

(IV) Panchayats have no powers of taxation.

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

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93. Which of the following pairs is wrong? (KERALA SET 2019 JULY)

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94. Who was the chairman of Administrative Reforms Commission II (ARC II)? (BHU MA 2019)

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95. Consider the following statements: (KERALA SET 2013 DECEMBER)

1. The Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) had recommended that the Department of Personnel of a State should be put under the charge of the Chief Secretary of a State

2. Chief Secretary of a State is not involved in any manner in the promotion of State Civil Officers to the All – India Services

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

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96. In which of the following years was the Central Vigilance Commission established by the Government of India? (DU MA 2019)

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97. Who is the chairperson of NITI aayog (JMI M.A. 2022)

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98. Planning Commission was (WEST BENGAL SET DECEMBER 2023)

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99. Who is the Vice-Chairman of NITI Ayog? (BHU MA 2019)

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100. The National Institution for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog is : (MAHARASHTRA SET 2020 PAPER II)

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