Common University Entrance Test (CUET)
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Created by Dr. S. H. Sarkar

Unit 7: Political Institutions in India Mock Test for WB SET December 2024

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1. Which of the following are statutory bodies? (NET June 2015 Paper III)

(A) University Grants Commission

(B) Union Public Service Commission

(C) National Commission for Human Rights

(D) National Commission for Minorities

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

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2. Match List I with List II and select the correct code: (GUJARAT SET 2014 PAPER III)

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3. Which of the following are related to electoral reform in India? (NET October 2022 Paper II Shift I)

(A) Dinesh Goswami Committee

(B) Indrajit Gupta Committee

(C) Tarkunde Committee

(D) Santhanam Committee

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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4. The Committee not associated with electoral reforms in India? (KERALA SET 2021 JULY)

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5. Which Article relates to the appointment of the Advocate General of a state? (WB PSC 2022)

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6. Which provision of Indian Constitution talks of Panchayati Raj Institutions? (WB SET 2015 Paper III)

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7. The Indian Constitution borrows the concept of 'equal protection of law' from the Constitution of (University of Hyderabad MA 2014)

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8. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: (WEST BENGAL SET 2022)

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9. India borrowed the expression ‘Procedure established by Law’ from the constitution of: (KERALA SET 2018 FEBRUARY)

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10. The Framers of the Indian Constitution borrowed the concept of Procedures established by law from the Constitution of: (KERALA SET 2022 JULY)

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11. The purpose of introduction of Goods and Services Tax (GST) is to (JMI M.A. 2016)

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12. Who among the following are included in GST Council (NET March 2023 Shift II)

A.    The Union Finance Minister

B.     The Prime Minister of India

C.     The Union Minister of State in-charge of Revenue or Finance

D.    The Minister in-charge of Finance or Taxation or any other Minister nominated by each state Government

E.     The Finance secretary of the Government of India

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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13. Match the following: Match List I with List II (DU MA 2020)

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14. Which one of the following is NOT a function of the District Collector? (NET June 2008)

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15. The Office of the District Collector in India is based on the principle of (University of Hyderabad MA 2015)

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16. The initial idea of recruitment based on merit can be traced to the: (NET December 2004)

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17. Which one of the following committee's report said that Community Development Programme and National Extension Service had failed to evoke popular enthusiasm? (NET December 2012 Paper III)

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18. Consider the following statements: (WB SET 2017 Paper II)

  1. Hakim Ajmal Khan was one of the leaders who started Ahrar movement.
  2. Syed Ahmed Khan opposed the establishment of Indian National Congress.
  3. All India Muslim League opposed the partition of Bengal and separate electorates.
  4. Sarojini Naidu was the first woman President of Indian National Congress.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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19. Who was the President of Congress when it adopted the 'Poorna Swaraj' resolution? (WB SET 2015 Paper III)

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20. Which of the following commissions identified the "creamy layer" among Backward classes? (NET June 2009)

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21. Which of the following Committee was appointed by the Government of India to Identify the creamy layer among Backward Classes in India? (NET December 2012 Paper II)

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22. Article 340 of the Indian constitution deals with - (JMI M.A. 2022)

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23. Identify correctly the mandate of the National Commission for Child Rights. (PUMDET 2019) 

The Commission's Mandate is to ensure that all provide economic relief to poor families

1. Laws, Policies, Programmes, and Administrative Mechanisms are in consonance with the Child rights perspective

2. the Child is defined as a person in the 0 to 18 years age group.

3.  provide shelter to orphans

4. provide economic relief to poor families

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24. Which Article of the Indian Constitution makes special provision for the Administration of certain areas called Scheduled Areas"? (NET August 2024 Shift II)

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25. Anti-defection law was placed in: (NET December 2008)

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26. Part V, Chapter I of the Constitution of India contains provisions relating to the power and functions of the: (JMI M.A. 2021-2022)

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27. The number of States and Union Territories in India under the linguistic division of States in 1956 was (Bihar PGT 2023)

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28. Zonal Councils in India were provided under the (Bihar PGT 2023)

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29. Which does not come under All India Service? (NET August 2024 Shift I)

(A) Indian Administrative Services

(B) Indian Police Service

(C) Indian Foreign Service

(D) Indian Forest Service

(E) Indian Custom Service

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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30. Which is the correct sequential order of the following stages in the appointment of Civil Servants? (NET December 2008)

(i) Induction

(ii) Advertisement

(iii) Viva-Voce

(iv) Written Examination

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31. Which of the following is not the right of the Attomey General for India? (NET December 2004)

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32. The Supreme Court in India: (NET December 2008)

(i) has original but not appellate jurisdictions

(ii) appoints the Attorney General of India

(iii) has exclusive jurisdiction in disputes between Union and the States

(iv) enforces fundamental rights

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

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33. Article 1 of the Indian Constitution says (University of Hyderabad MA 2014)

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34. Which Article of the Indian Constitution describes India as a ‘Union of States’. (MAHARASHTRA SET 2018 PAPER III)

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35. Which one of the following is mainly associated with Panchayati Raj in tribal areas? (NET June 2014 Paper II)

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36. Which one of the following Commissions are statutory bodies? (NET June 2019 Paper II)

(A) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes

(B) National Commission for Human Rights

(C) National Commission for Minorities

(D) National Commission for Scheduled Castes

Select the correct answer from the given options:

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37. A branch of learning which enquires into the ways of performance of political functions in primitive and tribal communities is termed as? (JMI M.A. 2021-2022)

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38. Arrange the following in the chronological order of their establishment: (WEST BENGAL SET DECEMBER 2023)

(i) National Commission for Scheduled Castes

(ii) National Commission for Women

(iii) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes

(iv) National Human Rights Commission

Choose the right code from the following:

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39. Arrange the following Commissions/Councils as per their establishment in the chronological order: (NET June 2024 Paper II)

A. Goods and Services Tax council

B. National Commission for Women

C. National Commission for Minorities

D. National Commission for protection of Child Rights

E. Formation of Niti Aayog

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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40. The financial powers of the President of India include: (WB SET 2017 Paper III)

  1. Management of the Contingency Fund of India.
  2. Recommending introduction of Money Bill in the Lok Sabha.
  3. Appointment of Finance Commission.
  4. Rejection of a Money Bill passed by the Parliament.

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41. Arrange the following in the ascending order of their establishmenth (NET November 2021 Shift II)

A. 14 Finance Commission of India

B. Union Public Service Commission

C. Central Vigilance Commission

D. NITI Aayog

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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42. The first Finance Commission was constituted in: (NET December 2004)

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43. Which are the six minority religious communities notified by the National Commission for Minorities (NCM) setup by the Union Government under the National Commission for Minorities Act 1992? (NET March 2023 Shift I)

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44. 'The National Commission for Minorities' is a statutory body created under: (JAMMU & KASHMIR SET October 2023)

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45. When was the National Human Rights commission formed? (WB PSC 2022)

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46. When was the National Human Rights commission formed? (WB PSC 2022)

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47. First Chairman of National Human Rights Commission of India was: (KERALA SET 2015 DECEMBER)

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48. The ineffectiveness of the Protection of Civil Rights Act 1955 led to the enactment of which particular Act in late 1980s? (DU MA 2018)

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49. Which of the following are the powers of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC)? (TELANGANA SET 2023)

A. Summoning and enforcing the attendance of any person from any part of India and examining him/her on oath

B. Requiring the discovery and production of any documents

C. Requisitioning any record from the courts excluding the Supreme Court and High Courts

D. Issuing summons/communications for the examination of witnesses and documentation

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50. The following were associated with reforms in local government: (NET December 2006)

(i) Lord Ripon

(ii) Lord Mayo

(iii) Ashok Mehta

(iv) Balwant Rai Mehta

What is the correct chronological sequence of the above?

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51. The Indian Constitution provides for municipalities in which one of is following parts: (BHU MA 2014)

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52. Which one of the following functions is performed by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India? (NET December 2008)

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53. In context of Articles of the Constitution given below match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below: (NET June 2008)

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54. The cornerstone of the ECI's mandate derives from Article 324 of the Constitution. (NET August 2024 Shift I)

(A) Article 324 mandated that the commission is to be led by a Single Chief Election Commissioner (CEC)

(B) The president can appoint additional commissioners

(C) Judiciary is barred from interference in the election process

(D) Election Commission also conducts the elections of Panchayats

(E) During the Election Period CEC acts as Chief Executive Officer of Government of India

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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55. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is there the provision for having the Election Commission? (NET December 2010 Paper II)

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56. Which of the following factors can be considered as responsible for the trend of growing centralization in Union-State relations? (WB SET 2017 Paper III)

  1. Threats to national security and integrity.
  2. Limited revenue and resources of the State Governments.
  3. Rule of the same party at the Centre and large number of States.
  4. Judgements of the Supreme Court of India on role of Governor.

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57. In the question given below, there are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (WB SET 2017 Paper III)

Assertion (A): A federal system invariably provides for an independent Judiciary.

Reason (R): It settles disputes between the centre and the constituent units.

Codes:

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58. Whenever the Governor of a State has to address the State Legislature, who among the following prepares his address? (KERALA SET 2013 DECEMBER)

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59. The name of the current (2024) Chief Minister of Goa, elected is (University of Hyderabad M.A. 2012)

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60. Which Chief Minister was removed first time in India by the use/misuse of Article 356? (NET August 2024 Shift II)

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61. Choose the correct statements regarding Constitution of India - (NET August 2024 Shift II)

A. The Governor is appointed by the Prime Minister.

B. The Attorney general is appointed by the President.

C. The Chairman of UPSC is appointed by the President.

D. The Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President.

E. The Judges of the High Court are appointed by the Governor.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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62. Under which Article of the Constitution of India, the Governor can reserve a bill for the consideration of President: (Kerala SET January 2024)

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63. The total number of members in the Vidhan Parishad of a state cannot exceed (WB SET 2017 Paper II)

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64. Which one of the following State Assemblies had six years term? (NET December 2007)

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65. Which one of the following is not within the jurisdiction of State High Court in India? (WEST BENGAL SET DECEMBER 2023)

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66. What is reason of recent conflict between executive and judiciary? (MAHARASHTRA SET 2018 PAPER II)

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67. The constitutional validity of a state law in India may be challenged (KERALA SET 2013 DECEMBER)

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68. Match List-I and List-II by using the codes given below: (NET December 2005)

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69. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R): (NET December 2006)

Assertion (A): The Supreme Court of India cannot declare a bad law invalid.

Reason (R): The Supreme Court of India follows the 'due process of law.

In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct?

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70. "We are under the Constitution but the Constitution is what the judges say it is." Which of the following countries can this be applicable to? (NET December 2012 Paper III)

  1. India
  2. America
  3. Switzerland
  4. Australia

Codes:

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71. Judicial Review means (University of Hyderabad M.A. 2011)

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72. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below: (NET June 2008)

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73. When were the Lok Sabha rules amended to provide for Department Related Parliamentary Standing Committees? (NET December 2012 Paper II)

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74. Arrange the following Speakers of the Lok-Sabha as per their tenure in the chronological order: (NET August 2024 Shift II)

A. Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar

B. P. A. Sangma

C. Om Birla

D. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy

E. Ms. Meira Kumar

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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75. The Lok Sabha was first constituted in: (NET December 2004)

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76. Who did hold the positions of both Deputy Prime Minister and Prime Minister in different Union Governments? (WB SET 2015 Paper III)

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77. Arrange the following Prime Minister of India in the chronological order as per their tenure: (NET August 2024 Shift II)

A. Chandra Shekhar

B. H. D. Deve Gowda

C. Vishwanath Pratap Singh

D. Charan Singh

E. Morarji Desai

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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78. Article 359 of the Constitution of India deals with: (Kerala SET July 2024)

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79. Give bellow are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R): (NET December 2004)

Assertion (A): Presidential Government is more suitable than Parliamentary Government for meeting crisis

Reason (R): All executive powers rest in the President

In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct?

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80. In which of the following articles, the procedure to amend the Indian Constitution is mentioned? (WB SET 2017 Paper III)

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81. The amendment to the Indian Constitution which gave precedence to Directive Principle over Fundamental Rights is (WB SET 2017 Paper II)

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82. Which one of the following is not correctly matched? (BHU MA 2016)

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83. The Directive Principles of State Policy are borrowed from which of the following? (BHU MA 2016)

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84. In which part and article of the Constitution of India, Fundamental Duties have been mentioned: (NET June 2015 Paper III)

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85. By which amendment fundamental duties were incorporated in the Indian Constitution?  (KERALA SET 2019 FEBRUARY)

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86. Articles 17 and 18 of Indian Constitution provide (WB SET 2017 Paper II)

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87. The State under Article 12 of the Indian Constitution includes: (Kerala SET January 2024)

  1. The Government and Parliament of India
  2. The government and legislature of the states
  3. Local authorities or other authorities within the territories of India under the control of government of India

Which of the above statements are correct?

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88. What is the correct order in which the following terms are enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution of India? (NET June 2015 Paper II)

(A) Equality

(B) Liberty

(C) Justice

(D) Fraternity

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

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89. By which Constitutional Amendment Act. the words the "unity and integrity of the nation" was added in the Preamble? (BHU MA 2014)

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90. Which of the following statements is wrong? (WB SET 2015 Paper III)

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91. The Drafting Committee of the Indian Constituent Assembly, originally, consisted of (WB SET 2017 Paper III)

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92. Choose the incorrect answer related to the Indian Constitution- (NET August 2024 Shift II)

A. Provisions related to 'All India Services' are mentioned in Article 312.

B. Provisions related to Administrative tribunals are mentioned in Article 342A.

C. Provisions related to Inter-State council are mentioned in Article 244.

D. Provisions related to facilities for instruction in mother-tongue at primary stage is not mentioned in Indian Constitution.

E. Provisions related to languages are mentioned in Article 368.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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93. Doctrine of the Basic Structure of the Indian Constitution was enunciated by the (NET December 2005)

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94. Article 1 of the Constitution of India lays down that: (JMI M.A. 2021-2022)

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95. The Article of the Constitution of India which provides for adult suffrage: (KERALA SET 2019 JULY)

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96. There are two statements below. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of the statements, choose the correct answer using the codes given below: (WB SET 2017 Paper III)

Assertion (A): The British sovereignty in India continued to exist till the Indian Constitution came into force.

Reason (R): The British Government appointed the last Governor-General of India.

Codes:

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97. Which one of the following Acts/ Reports created the Federal Court in India? (NET December 2012 Paper II)

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98. Identify the correct chronological order of the following: (NET December 2011 Paper II)

(i) Cabinet Mission Plan

(ii) Cripps Mission

(iii) Simon Commission

(iv) Communal Award

Codes:

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99. Arrange the following Commissions of India as per their year of formation in the chronological order: (NET August 2024 Shift II)

A. National Commission for Minorities

B. National Commission for Schedule Castes

C. Central Information Commission

D. National Commission for Protection of Child Rights

E. National Commission for Women

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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100. Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption was appointed in (NET December 2012 Paper III)

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