Gujarat SET 2025 - Political Science Coaching Centre

Created by

Dr. S. H. Sarkar

Gujarat SET 2025

NameWhatsApp NumberPresent/Former College/University NameCity Name

1 / 100

1. "Political theory was political science in the full sense and there could be no science without theory ......... so political theory may legitimately and accurately be used as synonymous with political science." Who said this? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Sheldon Wolin

(B) Dante Germino

(C) Michael Oakeshott

(D) George Sabine

2 / 100

2. Who of the following thinkers differentiated between "the liberty of the ancients" and "the liberty of the moderns"? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Isaiah Berlin

(B) J. S. Mill

(C) Benjamin Constant

(D) R. H. Tawney

3 / 100

3. Match List - I and List - II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below. (Gujarat SET 2025)

A

B

C

D

4 / 100

4. Which of the following pairs of thinkers and their understanding of power is wrongly matched?

(A) Robert Dahl - Power as a process of thought control which manipulates the interests of others

(B) Giorgio Agamben - Power as a complex biopolitical mechanism that operates through the creation of 'bare life'

(C) Michel Foucault - Power as 'disciplinary' which shapes individuals by regulating their behaviour, time and space

(D) Friedrich Nietzsche - Power not as domination or control over others but rather fundamental drive within all living things to grow, expand and overcome obstacles

5 / 100

5. Which of the following statements is NOT true of T. H. Marshall's idea of social citizenship?

(A) Citizenship is ultimately a social status.

(B) Citizens have to enjoy freedom from poverty if they are to participate fully in the affairs of the community.

(C) Citizenship and social class are 'opposing principles'.

(D) Classes ought to be the basis on which citizenship is granted.

6 / 100

6. Which of the following statements are true of postmodernism?

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

A. Postmodernism rejects overarching and universal explanations of history and society.

B. Postmodernism suggests that knowledge is not absolute; rather it is relative to cultural and historical perspectives.

C. Postmodernism embraces the idea of a fragmented and diverse world, rather than a unified and coherent one.

D. Postmodernism sees language as a tool of communication which does not shape our understanding of reality.

Codes:

(A) a, c and d

(B) a, b and c

(C) b, c and d

(D) a, b and d

7 / 100

7.

A

B

C

D

8 / 100

8. Which of the following constitute core themes of conservatism? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Tradition; Hierarchy; Human Imperfection

(B) Social Change; Equality; Human Perfection

(C) Individualism; Hierarchy; Human Perfection

(D) Critique; Innovation; Change

9 / 100

9. Which of the following statements is true of liberalism? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Liberalism emerged as a rejection of modernity.

(B) Liberalism is based on individualism which considers the individual as ends in themselves.

(C) Liberalism understands the state to be natural and accidental.

(D) Liberalism considers all individuals as different and culturally constituted.

10 / 100

10. Which of the following pair is wrongly matched? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Mary Wollstonecraft - Liberal Feminism

(B) Germaine Greer - Radical Feminism

(C) Judith Butler - Neoliberal Feminism

(D) Friedrich Engels - Socialist Feminism

11 / 100

11. What is the name of the text that contains the teachings of Confucius and his followers? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) The Urn of Life

(B) The Analects

(C) Tao Lin Su

(D) The Mystic Search

12 / 100

12. Which of the following statements are true about the political thought of Aristotle? (Gujarat SET 2025)

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

A. While the final and perfect association - the polis, grows for the sake of mere life, it exists for the good life.

B. The polis refers to the political community that arose from the conglomeration of several tribes into a single unity.

C. It is possible for the whole of a state to be happy even if most of its parts or all are not happy.

D. Justice belongs to the polis, for justice is an ordering of the political association.

Codes:

(A) a, c and d

(B) b, c and d

(C) a, b and c

(D) a, b and d

13 / 100

13. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the codes given below. (Gujarat SET 2025)

A

B

C

D

14 / 100

14. "Sovereignty cannot be represented, for the same reason that it cannot be alienated .... And law which the people has not ratified in person is void, if not law at all." Who said this? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Thomas Hobbes

(B) John Locke

(C) J. S. Mill

(D) J. J. Rousseau

15 / 100

15. Which of the following statements are true about the political thought of John Locke? (Gujarat SET 2025)

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

A. John Locke made no distinction between political power and paternal power.

B. The compulsion to constitute a civil society was to protect and preserve freedom.

C. John Locke accepted Filmer's biblical account of the origins of political power.

D. Legitimate political authority was derived from the consensus of its people.

Codes:

(A) b and d

(B) a and c

(C) a and d

(D) a and b

16 / 100

16. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the codes given below. (Gujarat SET 2025)

Assertion (A): Gramsci's discussion of hegemony hinged in part, on the empirical observation that capitalist rule in developed western states, increasingly is found on the generation of consent across civil society.

Reason (R): Gramsci argued that the modern states since the mid-19th century have tended to legitimize their rule solely on grounds of coercion.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

17 / 100

17. In which work did Mary Wollstonecraft deal with multiple female characters telling their stories in order to show the wrongs and equal oppression of different classes? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) The Wrongs of Classes of Women

(B) The Wrongs of Women

(C) The Wrongs and Rights of Ownership

(D) The Right to Wrong Women

18 / 100

18. In his book titled Political Liberalism John Rawls begins with (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) The fact of reasonable consensus

(B) The fact of ethical uniformity

(C) The fact of reasonable pluralism

(D) The fact of unreasonable difference

19 / 100

19. According to Hannah Arendt, "The concept of crystallization" refers to (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) How freedom can be achieved by merging the rights of all into a common contextual framework

(B) How reason gets solidified into a singular political will

(C) How equality is secured by coalescing multiple truths into a single systematic constitution

(D) How totalitarianism emerges out of disparate elements belonging to the subterranean stream of western history

20 / 100

20. G. W. F. Hegel characterised the universal class of the bureaucracy as the "pillar of the state" because of its (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Commitment to the rule of God

(B) Commitment to political subjectivity

(C) Commitment to impartiality

(D) Commitment to the nobility

21 / 100

21. Which of the following are elements of Kautilya's Saptanga theory of the state? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Swami, Praja, Rashtra

(B) Amatya, Kosha, Janapada

(C) Mitra, Shatru, Praja

(D) Dharma, Danda, Nyay

22 / 100

22. Match List - I with List - II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below. (Gujarat SET 2025)

A

B

C

D

23 / 100

23. Which of the following pairs of concepts and advocate is wrongly matched? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Deendayal Upadhyaya - Integral Humanism

(B) M. N. Roy - Radical Humanism

(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak - 4 Pillar State

(D) Sri Aurobindo - Integral Yoga

24 / 100

24. Which of the following statements are true of V. D. Savarkar? (Gujarat SET 2025)

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.

A. Savarkar understood Hindutva to be the bond of love, common motherland and common blood among Hindus.

B. Savarkar authored the book titled Hindutva: What is a Hindu?

C. Savarkar established the RSS in 1926

D. Savarkar wrote the book Inside the Enemy Camp.

Codes:

(A) a and d

(B) b and c

(C) c and d

(D) a and b

25 / 100

25. Which of the following pairs of author and books is correctly matched? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Louis Fischer - My Days with Gandhi

(B) Nirmal Kumar Bose - A Week with Gandhi

(C) Bhikhu Parekh - Mahatma Gandhi: Nonviolent Power in Action

(D) Rajmohan Gandhi - The Good Boatman

26 / 100

26. "If we wish to maintain democracy not merely in form, but also in fact, what must we do? It means we must abandon the bloody methods of revolution. It means we must abandon the method of civil disobedience, non-cooperation and satyagraha.... These methods are nothing but the Grammar of Anarchy, and the sooner they are abandoned, the better for us". Who said this? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru

(B) B. R. Ambedkar

(C) V. D. Savarkar

(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

27 / 100

27. Which of the following books is NOT authored by Ram Manohar Lohia? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Guilty Men of India's Partition

(B) A Revolutionary's Quest

(C) Hindu Banam Hindu

(D) Economics After Marx

28 / 100

28. Match List - I and List - II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below. (Gujarat SET 2025)

A

B

C

D

29 / 100

29. Given below are two statements one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). (Gujarat SET 2025)

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.

Assertion (A): Nehru insisted that a scientific approach be accepted as a way of life, as a guiding principle and as a process of thinking to build the foundation of modern India.

Reason (R): Nehru observed that science revolutionized the conditions of human life and enabled man to secure considerable relief from the burden of miseries.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

30 / 100

30. Which of the following statements are true of Aurobindo's concept of nationalism? (Gujarat SET 2025)

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.

A. Aurobindo's concept of nationalism was deeply rooted in spirituality.

B. Aurobindo viewed the nation as a metaphysical entity geared to a utopian future.

C. Aurobindo viewed the nation as a divine entity and a spiritual force.

D. Aurobindo saw nationalism as a stepping stone towards human unity.

Codes:

(A) b, c and d

(B) a, b and d

(C) a, b and c

(D) a, c and d

31 / 100

31. Match List - I with List - II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below: (Gujarat SET 2025)

A

B

C

D

32 / 100

32. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). (Gujarat SET 2025)

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.

Assertion (A): European nationalism in the 19th century was closely linked with the rise of liberal democracy and the idea of a unified national identity.

Reason (R): The Civil Rights Movement in the 19th century helped spread the ideals of national self-determination across Europe.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

33 / 100

33. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) C. Wright Mills : Power Elite

(B) Vladimir Lenin : Vanguard Party

(C) Gaetano Mosca: Ruling Class

(D) Robert Michels: Unequal exchange

34 / 100

34. Which among the following according to Esping-Anderson are the major features of the welfare state model? (Gujarat SET 2025)

Universal social protection.
Commodification of labour.
De-commodification of essential services.
Residual approach to welfare.

Codes:

(A) 1 and 3 only

(B) 2 and 4 only

(C) 1, 2 and 3 only

(D) 1 and 4 only

35 / 100

35. Who among the following is associated with the analysis of totalitarianism as ideologically bound tyranny? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Guillermo O'Donnell

(B) Carl Schmitt

(C) Hannah Arendt

(D) Robert Dahl

36 / 100

36. Consider the following and identify the features of the parliamentary form of government. (Gujarat SET 2025)

Presence of a nominal or titular head of state.
Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature.
Accountability of the executive to the legislature.
Clear separation of powers.

Codes:

(A) 2, 3 and 4

(B) 1, 2 and 4

(C) 1, 3 and 4

(D) 1, 2 and 3

37 / 100

37. Who among the following is associated with the concept of 'polyarchy'? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Samir Amin

(B) Robert Dahl

(C) David Apter

(D) Gaetano Mosca

38 / 100

38. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below. (Gujarat SET 2025)

A

B

C

D

39 / 100

39. 'Mixed Member Proportional' (MMP) system ensures proportionality by (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Allowing only plurality based constituency wins

(B) Compensating party seat shares via national list

(C) Requiring ranked-preferential voting

(D) Excluding minority parties from legislatures

40 / 100

40. Theda Skocpol's structural theory of revolution emphasizes on (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Charismatic revolutionary leadership

(B) State breakdown due to international pressure and peasant autonomy

(C) Bourgeois class consciousness

(D) Ideological indoctrination by vanguard parties

41 / 100

41. What is the meaning of deterrence? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Non-use of force by using the potential and exploitability of force

(B) Achieve security through the ability to defend

(C) Seek balance of power with the adversarial state

(D) Deny the adversary any gain from a conflict by defending one's own interest

42 / 100

42. Which of the following are the elements of traditional concept of security? (Gujarat SET 2025)

Answer using the code below.

a. Guard against climate change

b. Protect sovereignty of the state

c. Seek more weapons

d. Preserve territorial integrity of the state

Codes:

(A) a, b, c

(B) b, c, d

(C) a, b, d

(D) a, c, d

43 / 100

43. Which of the following statement is true? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Chemical weapons convention allows the use of chemical weapons during war but not during peace.

(B) The genesis of international Atomic Energy Agency was President Roosevelt's address to the United Nations, titled "Nations for Peace".

(C) Partial Test Ban Treaty prohibits any nuclear explosion in the atmosphere, outer space, under water.

(D) The conference on Disarmament is a single unilateral disarmament negotiating forum of the international community.

44 / 100

44. Which of the following is an important idea related to Marxist approach to international relations? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Anarchical structure of international system

(B) Base and superstructure relationship

(C) Human nature as the determinant of state behaviour

(D) Institutions as facilitators of international co-operation

45 / 100

45. Which of the following statements is true? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) The World Trade Organisation (WTO) came into existence in 1996.

(B) The WTO was created as a subsidiary of International Monetary Fund.

(C) Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency is a part of WTO mechanism.

(D) Trade Related aspects of Intellectual Property Rights is a part of WTO mechanism.

46 / 100

46. Match List - I with List - II and choose correct answer from the codes given below. (Gujarat SET 2025)

A

B

C

D

47 / 100

47. Which of the following statements is true? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Kyoto protocol commits the parties to the treaty regulating ozone layer depletion.

(B) The US is not a party to Paris Treaty on climate change.

(C) The second commitment period of the Kyoto protocol was until 2020.

(D) Montreal protocol does not commit the parties to regulate the emission of CFC gases.

48 / 100

48. Which of the following is a principle of the United Nations mentioned in Article 2 of its Charter? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Respect sovereign equality of all members

(B) Bring about complete disarmament

(C) Reduce inequality of income among members

(D) Prevent use of weapons of mass destruction

49 / 100

49. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the codes given below: (Gujarat SET 2025)

Assertion (A): Emerging powers like India have been making a demand for reforms in the UN Security Council.

Reason (R): The organisation of the UN Security Council does not adequately represent the emerging powers.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

50 / 100

50. Given below are four groups of ideas. Which of these groups comprises all ideas drawn from Woodrow Wilson's "Fourteen Points"? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Formation of an association of nations, Right to self-determination, formation of regional groups

(B) Right to self-determination, Free trade, Ban on weapons of mass destruction

(C) General and complete disarmament, Formation of international trade organisation, Open diplomacy

(D) Equal trade conditions, Adjust colonial claims, Decrease armaments

51 / 100

51. Which among the following is an important reason behind the signing of India-USSR Friendship Treaty, 1971? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Call for independence by Mukti Bahini in East Pakistan

(B) Emergence of Washington -Beijing-Islamabad axis

(C) Inflow of refugees from East Pakistan into India

(D) People's Republic of China replacing Republic of China in UN Security Council

52 / 100

52. Which of the following statements is true of the India-US Nuclear Deal, 2005? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) India's entire nuclear programme was brought under the supervision of International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)

(B) Civilian and military nuclear 4 reactors were separated and military reactors were brought under IAEA supervision

(C) India signed the Non-Proliferation Treaty and became a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group

(D) Civilian and military nuclear reactors were separated and civilian reactors were brought under IAEA supervision

Indo–US Civil Nuclear Cooperation (2005–2008)

The Indo–US Civil Nuclear Cooperation Agreement, commonly known as the India–US Nuclear Deal or the 123 Agreement, is one of the most significant milestones in India's post-Cold War foreign policy.

It ended India's long-standing nuclear isolation and enabled international civil nuclear cooperation despite India being a non-signatory to the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT).

Background

India conducted Pokhran-II nuclear tests in 1998, after which several countries imposed sanctions.
Relations between India and the United States improved significantly under Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee and later under Prime Minister Manmohan Singh.
The agreement recognized India's responsible nuclear record while allowing civil nuclear cooperation without requiring India to join the NPT as a non-nuclear-weapon state.

Timeline

18 July 2005

Prime Minister Manmohan Singh and U.S. President George W. Bush issued the Joint Statement in Washington, D.C.
The United States agreed to work towards full civil nuclear cooperation with India.

2006

The U.S. Congress passed the Hyde Act, enabling civilian nuclear cooperation with India.

2007

India and the United States finalized the 123 Agreement (under Section 123 of the U.S. Atomic Energy Act).

2008

Three major milestones were achieved:

India concluded a Safeguards Agreement with the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA).
The Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) granted India a special waiver, permitting nuclear trade despite its non-membership in the NPT.
The 123 Agreement entered into force after approval by both countries.

Main Features

Allowed civil nuclear trade between India and the United States.
India agreed to separate civilian and military nuclear facilities.
India's civilian nuclear facilities were placed under IAEA safeguards.
India retained its strategic (military) nuclear programme outside IAEA safeguards.
The United States agreed to facilitate nuclear fuel, reactors, and technology for peaceful purposes.

Significance

1. Ended India's Nuclear Isolation

India gained access to global nuclear commerce after decades of restrictions.

2. Strengthened India–US Strategic Partnership

Marked a turning point in bilateral relations.

3. Energy Security

Enabled imports of nuclear fuel and reactors to support electricity generation.

4. International Recognition

India was accepted as a responsible nuclear power despite remaining outside the NPT.

5. Access to Global Nuclear Markets

Opened opportunities for cooperation with countries such as France, Russia, Canada, Australia, and Japan.

Criticisms

Some argued that the agreement could affect India's strategic autonomy.
Concerns were raised regarding dependence on imported nuclear fuel and technology.
Debate continued over the implications of the Hyde Act and future nuclear testing.

53 / 100

53. Which of the following is a principle of Gujral Doctrine? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Non-interference in the region

(B) Non-alignment with neighbours

(C) Non-reciprocity in relations with neighbours

(D) Non-participation in regional affairs

54 / 100

54. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the codes given below: (Gujarat SET 2025)

Assertion (A): Peace and development in India's North-eastern Region is one of the objectives of the "Look East Policy".

Reason (R): India has signed a free trade agreement with the ASEAN.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the reason of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the reason of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

55 / 100

55. Which of the following is NOT one of the four foundational agreements between India and U.S.A.? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement

(B) International Solar Alliance

(C) Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement

(D) Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement

Year	Agreement
2002	GSOMIA (General Security of Military Information Agreement)
2004	NSSP (Next Steps in Strategic Partnership)
2005	Open Skies Agreement
2005	New Framework for the India–US Defense Relationship
2008	India–US Civil Nuclear Agreement (123 Agreement)
2016	LEMOA
2018	COMCASA
2020	BECA
2023	INDUS-X (India–United States Defense Acceleration Ecosystem)

56 / 100

56. Which of the following is a part of the "Look West Policy"? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Improve relations with the UAE and Saudi Arabia

(B) Recognition of the Taliban regime in Afghanistan

(C) Sign a Free Trade Agreement with the European Union

(D) Prevent China from using the Gwadar port of Pakistan

57 / 100

57. Which of the following statements are true? Choose the correct answer from the codes given below. (Gujarat SET 2025)

a. India's Policy of Non-Alignment was a response to the Cold War.

b. India's Policy of Non-Alignment also involved extending support to national self-determination movements.

c. Despite being non-aligned, India in pursuit of national interest compromised the idea of equidistance from superpowers.

d. Policy of Non-Alignment prevented India from joining the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade.

Codes:

(A) a, b, c

(B) a, b, d

(C) b, c, d

(D) a, c, d

58 / 100

58. As per the Indian Navy's Maritime Doctrine, there are four types of roles of the Indian Navy, namely, Military, Diplomatic, Constabulary and Benign. Which of the following describes the military role? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Employ force to enforce law of the land or to implement an international regime

(B) Projecting power and deterring potential adversaries at and/or from the sea

(C) Use strength in disaster management

(D) Favorably shape maritime environment in furtherance of national interest through joint exercises

59 / 100

59. Which of the following statements about the India-Pakistan Indus-Water Treaty is true? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) It was signed in 1959.

(B) It allotted the waters of Indus, Ravi and Beas rivers to Pakistan.

(C) It established the permanent Indus Commission.

(D) It has been bilaterally withdrawn since April 2025.

60 / 100

60. India is an original member of which of the following groups? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) ASEAN, SAARC, SCO

(B) SCO, BRICS, QUAD

(C) SAARC, BRICS, SCO

(D) SAARC, BRICS, QUAD

61 / 100

61. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the codes given below: (Gujarat SET 2025)

Assertion (A): The Constituent Assembly of India did not include a separate provision for freedom of the press.

Reason (R): The Constituent Assembly considered it an integral part of the broader freedom of speech and expression, as enshrined in Article 25(1) (A).

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

62 / 100

62. In which resolution and when did the Indian National Congress outline the party's vision for an independent India's economic and political framework and a guarantee of Fundamental Rights to every citizen? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Lahore Resolution of 1929

(B) Calcutta Resolution of 1932

(C) Madras Resolution of 1927

(D) Karachi Resolution of 1931

63 / 100

63. Article 15(4) enables the state to make special provisions for socially and educationally backward classes, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. Which of the following is true? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) This provision was added by the First Amendment, 1951

(B) This provision was added by the Fourth Amendment, 1955

(C) This provision existed in the Constitution as adopted in 1950

(D) This provision was added by the Sixteenth Amendment, 1963

64 / 100

64. Which of the following statements are true? (Gujarat SET 2025)

a. Fundamental Rights cannot be amended by an absolute majority.

b. Directive Principles of State Policy are non-justiciable rights.

c. Fundamental Rights are justiciable rights.

d. None of the Fundamental Rights may be suspended during a proclamation of Emergency under Article 352.

(A) a, b

(B) a, d

(C) b, c

(D) b, d

65 / 100

65. Which of the following principles form the basis upon which the Green Tribunal in India operates? (Gujarat SET 2025)

i. Balancing economic development with environment protection.

ii. Promoting organic produce through green farming.

iii. Taking preventive measures to protect the environment.

iv. Those who pollute the environment should pay the price for the mitigation of the damage

Codes:

(A) i, iii, iv

(B) ii, iii, iv

(C) i, ii, iii

(D) i, ii, iv

66 / 100

66. Which of the following statements is NOT true? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) The Money Bill must be introduced in the Lok Sabha.

(B) The Money Bill must be introduced only with the recommendation of the Finance Minister of India.

(C) Rajya Sabha can suggest amendments to the Money Bill.

(D) The President cannot use suspensive veto against the Money Bill once passed by the Parliament.

67 / 100

67. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the codes given below. (Gujarat SET 2025)

Assertion (A): A three member Election Commission became a norm since 1993.

Reason (R): The Election Commission (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners and Transaction of Business) Act was passed by the Government in January 1993.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) A) is true but (R) is false

(D) A) is false but (R) is true

68 / 100

68. Which Amendment of the Constitution of India froze the delimitation of Lok Sabha and State Assembly Constituencies until the first census after 2026? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) 83rd Amendment

(B) 84th Amendment

(C) 85th Amendment

(D) 87th Amendment

69 / 100

69. Which of the following pairs between books and authors is correctly matched? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Manoranjan Mohanty - Three Civilizations, Two Cultures, One State

(B) C. P. Bhambri - Multiple Identities in a Single State

(C) Pratap Bhanu Mehta - Dynamics of Indian Federalism

(D) Balveer Arora - India's Beleaguered Federalism: The Pluralist Challenge

70 / 100

70. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the codes given below. (Gujarat SET 2025)

A

B

C

D

71 / 100

71. Who among the following scholars characterized the Indian State as a "Soft State" due to its inability to enforce rules and implement reforms effectively? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Bimal Jalan

(B) Pranab Bardhan

(C) Gunnar Myrdal

(D) Amartya Sen

72 / 100

72. Match List - I with List - II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below: (Gujarat SET 2025)

A

B

C

D

73 / 100

73. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). (Gujarat SET 2025)

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.

Assertion (A): According to Sudipta Kaviraj, identities in India are not inherently anti-development but often become vehicles for claims of redistribution and justice.

Reason (R): Identity politics always undermines development and economic progress. Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

74 / 100

74. Arrange the following events in the chronological order (ascending) of their occurrence. (Gujarat SET 2025)

i. Formation of self-respect movement.

ii. Founding of All India Trade Union Congress.

iii. Champaran Satyagraha.

iv. Publication of "Annihilation of Caste".

Select the correct order:

(A) iii, ii, i, iv

(B) ii, iii, i, iv

(C) iii, i, ii, iv

(D) i, iv, iii,

75 / 100

75. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding Dalit Movement in India? (Gujarat SET 2025)

i. They principally aimed at social, political and economic emancipation of the socially oppressed castes.

ii. The term Dalit was popularised by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar.

iii. Dalit Panthers were inspired by the Black Panther Movement in the USA.

iv. Dalit movement has been active only in Madhya Pradesh.

Codes:

(A) i and ii only

(B) i and iii only

(C) ii and iii only

(D) i, ii and iv only

76 / 100

76. Who among the feminist scholars have authored the book "Gendering Caste"? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Flavia Agnes

(B) Uma Chakravarti

(C) Nivedita Menon

(D) Raka Ray

77 / 100

77. Who among the following advocated for a non-party political formation in India? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Ashis Nandy

(B) Partha Chatterjee

(C) Rajni Kothari

(D) Andre Beteille

78 / 100

78. Which among the following is one of the reason behind the demand for a separate Vidarbha State? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Language difference from Maharashtra

(B) Cultural differences from North India

(C) Uneven resource distribution and neglect in development

(D) Ethnic conflict with neighbouring states

79 / 100

79. Who among the following scholars have observed that, electoral politics in India has depoliticised poverty and reinforced clientelism? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Jean Dreze

(B) Pratap Bhanu Mehta

(C) Sudipta Kaviraj

(D) Partha Chatterjee

80 / 100

80. The Self-Respect Movement in Tamil Nadu led by E. V. Ramasamy (Periyar) was fundamentally a (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Peasant movement against Zamindari

(B) Radical social movement challenging Brahminical hegemony and caste hierarchy

(C) Movement for the formation of linguistic states

(D) Movement aligned with Gandhian principles

81 / 100

81. The first stage in the development of public administration is associated with which of the following? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Human-administration dichotomy

(B) Politics-administration dichotomy

(C) Knowledge-administration dichotomy

(D) Society-administration dichotomy

82 / 100

82. Which of the following statements on Karl Marx's understanding of bureaucracy are true? Choose the correct answer from the codes given below. (Gujarat SET 2025)

a. Marx viewed bureaucracy as an inherent feature of the bourgeois state.

b. Marx saw bureaucracy as a non-hierarchical structure of administrators, focused on the general welfare of the public.

c. Marx saw bureaucracy as a hierarchical structure of administrators, often serving private interests of the dominant class.

d. Marx saw the bureaucracy as neutral and at a distance from class interests.

Codes:

(A) a and c

(B) a and b

(C) b and d

(D) b and c

83 / 100

83. The Hawthorne Studies a series of social experiments conducted at the Western Electric Company's Hawthorne Works was spearheaded by (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Fred Riggs

(B) C. Wright Mills

(C) Herbert Simon

(D) Elton Mayo

84 / 100

84. Mary Parker Follett's management theory emphasized which of the following as the key elements of effective management? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Centralization; Command; Control

(B) Control; Hierarchy; Authority

(C) Disintegration; Power-grabbing; Competition

(D) Collaboration; Integration; Power-sharing

85 / 100

85. Match List - I with List - II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below. (Gujarat SET 2025)

A

B

C

D

86 / 100

86. Which of the following is used by Chester Bernard to refer to the range of directives or orders that an individual within an organization will accept without question or conscious deliberation? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Zone of Indifference

(B) Zone of Obedience

(C) Zone of Authority

(D) Zone of Agreement

87 / 100

87. Who introduced the concept of Management by Objectives (MBO)? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Elton Mayo

(B) Herbert Simon

(C) Peter Drucker

(D) Fred Riggs

88 / 100

88. Which of the following statements are true of the ecological approach in public administration? Choose the correct answer from the codes given below. (Gujarat SET 2025)

a. The ecological approach emphasizes the independence of administration from the social, economic and cultural context.

b. The ecological approach views the administrative system as open, embedded within and interacting with the environment.

c. The ecological approach recognizes that administrative structures and processes are shaped by their surrounding environment.

d. The ecological approach holds that the environment is not influenced by administrative structures and processes.

Codes:

(A) a and b

(B) b and c

(C) c and d

(D) a and d

89 / 100

89. Which of the following are the 4 Ps of development administration, according to Luther Gulick? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Power; Position; Purpose; Process

(B) Purpose; Process; Persons; Place

(C) Position; Program; Product; Purpose

(D) Program; Plan; Purpose; Product

90 / 100

90. Which of the following is NOT a key aspect of New Public Administration? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Social Equity

(B) Citizen Participation

(C) Relevance

(D) Economy

91 / 100

91. Which of the following reflects administrative accountability in the Indian system? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Delegated legislation

(B) Ministerial responsibility to the Parliament

(C) Governor's discretionary powers

(D) Model Code of Conduct

92 / 100

92. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the codes given below. (Gujarat SET 2025)

Assertion (A): The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) cannot question the policy decisions of the government.

Reason (R): The role of PAC is limited to examining the legality and propriety of expenditure.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

93 / 100

93. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the codes given below. (Gujarat SET 2025)

A

B

C

D

94 / 100

94. Which of the following statements are correct about MGNREGA? (Gujarat SET 2025)

a. It is demand driven.

b. It guarantees only 50 days work.

c. Wage payment is made in cash.

d. It mandates inclusion of women.

Codes:

(A) i and iv only

(B) ii and iii only

(C) i, ii and iv only

(D) i, ii and iii only

95 / 100

95. Which of the following reforms has directly influenced the administrative culture in India from bureaucracy and rule centric to citizen centric governance? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act

(B) e-Governance Mission Mode Projects

(C) Goods and Services Tax

(D) Ayushman Bharat Yojana

96 / 100

96. Arrange the following schemes in the chronological order of their year of launch in an ascending order and choose the correct answer from the codes given below. (Gujarat SET 2025)

a. RTE Act (Right to Education Act)

b. PMJDY (Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana)

c. NFSA (National Food Security Act)

d. MGNREGA (Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act)

Codes:

(A) a, b, c, d

(B) c, d, b, a

(C) d, a, c, b

(D) d, c, b, a

97 / 100

97. Which of the following distinguishes NITI Aayog from the former Planning Commission in institutional logic? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) NITI Aayog has a constitutional status

(B) It distributes plan grants to states

(C) It promotes cooperative and competitive federalism through policy coordination

(D) It centralizes national economic planning

98 / 100

98. Which of the following Sections of the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005 outlines specific exemption under which public authorities are NOT obligated to disclose information? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Section 1

(B) Section 8

(C) Section 2

(D) Section 7

99 / 100

99. The National Food Security Act (NFSA), legally entitles (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) Only children under 6 years

(B) 50% urban and 75% rural population to subsidised food

(C) 100% population to subsidised food

(D) Pregnant women only

100 / 100

100. The National Health Mission (NHM) integrates which two earlier programs? (Gujarat SET 2025)

(A) ICDS and SSA

(B) NRHM-and NUHM

(C) PMGKY and PMAY

(D) RTE and NHRM

Your score is

The average score is 15%

0%

GUJARAT SET Gujarat SET 2025

GUJARAT SET

Indo–US Civil Nuclear Cooperation (2005–2008)

Background

Timeline

18 July 2005

2006

2007

2008

Main Features

Significance

1. Ended India's Nuclear Isolation

2. Strengthened India–US Strategic Partnership

3. Energy Security

4. International Recognition

5. Access to Global Nuclear Markets

Criticisms

Important Agreements of Between India and the US

Finish Course Early?

GUJARAT SET Gujarat SET 2025

GUJARAT SET

Report a question

Indo–US Civil Nuclear Cooperation (2005–2008)

Background

Timeline

18 July 2005

2006

2007

2008

Main Features

Significance

1. Ended India's Nuclear Isolation

2. Strengthened India–US Strategic Partnership

3. Energy Security

4. International Recognition

5. Access to Global Nuclear Markets

Criticisms

Important Agreements of Between India and the US

Finish Course Early?