NET Unit 7: Political Institutions in India Part V - Political Science Coaching Centre

Created by

Dr. S. H. Sarkar

NET Unit 7: Political Institutions in India Part V

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1. "If Hume and other English liberals hoped to use Congress as a safety-valve, the Congress leaders hoped to use Hume as a lightening- conductor". Who said this? (NET July 2018 Paper II)

(a) S. R. Mehrotra

(b) Sumit Sarkar

(c) Bipan Chandra

(d) Tapan Raychaudhuri

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2. Which one of the following Commissions was not related to Backward Classes? (NET July 2018 Paper II)

(a) Bakshi Commission

(b) Mandal Commission

(c) Havnoor Commission

(d) Shah Commission

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3. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below: (NET July 2018 Paper II)

Assertion (A): Lant Pritchett Calls India a "flailing state."

Reason (R): The state in India appears to undertake highly complex takes with relative efficiency - such as running atomic weapons programme or regulating monetary policy - while struggling to perform more ordinary governance tasks such as delivering basic health and education.

Code:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

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4. Which of the following have been discussed as crisis of India's national unity by Paul R. Brass in his book The Politics of India since Independence? (NET July 2018 Paper II)

(A) Punjab

(B) The North East

(C) Casteism

(D) Kashmir

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(a) (A) and (D) only

(b) (B) and (C) only

(c) (A), (B) and (C) only

(d) (A), (B) and (D) only

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5. The grounds on which President's Rule has been imposed on the states in India are: (NET July 2018 Paper II)

(A) If no stable government can be formed.

(B) If the Cabinet has lost majority and no other ministry commanding a majority in the Assembly can be formed at once.

(C) If the state government does not obey the directives given by the Union government or breakdown of federal structure.

(D) Corruption

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) (A) and (B) only

(b) (A), (B) and (C) only

(c) (A), (B) and (D) only

(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

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6. Which committee on Panchayati Raj in India takes of three phases: "The phase of ascendency The phase of stagnation and The phase of decline"? (NET July 2018 Paper II)

(a) Sadiq Ali

(b) L. M. Singhvi

(c) Ashok Mehta

(d) B. R. Mehta

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7. Who describes Indian federation as a "holding together federation and not a 'coming together federation"? (NET July 2018 Paper II)

(a) P. Bardhan

(b) R. L. Watts

(c) Douglas Verney

(d) D. D. Basu

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8. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below: (NET July 2018 Paper II)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

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9. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below: (NET July 2018 Paper II)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

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10. Who calls Election Commission of India as an effective 'bulwark of free and fair elections'? (NET July 2018 Paper II)

(a) Alistair McMillan

(b) Lloyd and Susanne Rudolph

(c) R. P. Bhalla

(d) M. Katju

Lloyd and Susanne Rudolph called the Election Commission of India (ECI) an effective "bulwark of free and fair elections" because of its critical role in ensuring the integrity of India's electoral process. They viewed the ECI as a key institution that upholds democratic norms by functioning independently and impartially, despite the complexities of managing elections in a vast, diverse, and often politically charged environment like India.

Key reasons for their description:

Independence: The ECI operates independently from the government, ensuring that elections are conducted without undue influence from political parties or ruling authorities. This independence is essential in safeguarding the fairness of elections and maintaining public trust in the democratic process.
Administrative Strength: The ECI has built a reputation for its effective administration, from organizing large-scale elections across millions of voters to maintaining law and order during the election process. Its ability to manage logistics, deploy security forces, and monitor voting processes ensures that elections are not marred by fraud or violence.
Electoral Reforms and Oversight: The ECI has taken proactive steps in enforcing electoral laws, ensuring transparency, and implementing reforms that prevent malpractices such as voter fraud, booth capturing, and unfair campaign practices. The Commission's authority to regulate campaign finance, media usage, and voter registration further strengthens its role as a guardian of free and fair elections.
Judicial-like Role: The ECI's quasi-judicial powers, such as disqualifying candidates or canceling elections if irregularities are found, provide it with a strong mechanism to ensure compliance with the rules. This enforcement capability contributes to its effectiveness as a bulwark against electoral malpractice.

In calling the Election Commission a "bulwark," the Rudolphs emphasized its role as a protector of the democratic process, capable of standing firm against pressures that could compromise the fairness of elections, thus sustaining India's status as a vibrant democracy.

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11. Who of the following regard the Supreme Court of India as having a dual personality - a legal institution and a public institution? (NET July 2018 Paper II)

(a) Granville Austin

(b) Upendra Baxi

(c) Madhav Khosla and Ananth Padmanabhan

(d) N. Robinson

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12. "India since 1989 has witnessed fewer abuses of power by Prime Ministers than the United Kingdom experienced under either Margaret Thatcher or Tony Blair". Whose statement is this? (NET July 2018 Paper II)

(a) Atul Kohli

(b) Granville Austin

(c) James Manor

(d) Christophe Jaffrelot

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13. Which article of the Indian Constitution empower the Parliament to make provisions for a contingency when the offices of both the President and the Vice-President fall vacant by reasons of death, resignation, removal or otherwise? (NET July 2018 Paper II)

(a) Article 123

(b) Article 72

(c) Article 70

(d) Article 58

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14. Put the following Presidents of India since 1989 in their chronological order and select the correct answer from the code given below: (NET July 2018 Paper II)

K.R. Narayanan, A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, R. Venkatraman, Shankar Dayal Sharma, Pratibha Patil

Code:

(a) K.R. Narayanan, R. Venkatraman, Pratibha Patil, A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, Shankar Dayal Sharma.

(b) R. Venkatraman, A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, Shankar Dayal Sharma, Pratibha Patil, K.R. Narayanan.

(c) Pratibha Patil, K.R. Narayanan, Shankar Dayal Sharma, R. Venkatraman, A.P.J. Abdul Kalam.

(d) R. Venkatraman, Shankar Dayal Sharma, K.R. Narayanan, A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, Pratibha Patil.

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15. Which of the following is not true about the amendment of the Constitution under Article 368? (NET July 2018 Paper II)

(a) The Bill may be introduced in either House of Parliament.

(b) The Bill must be passed by special majority (2/3rd present and voting and more than 50% of the total membership).

(c) In case of disagreement between the Houses joint sitting may be called.

(d) The President is bound to give assent to the Bill duty passed and ratified.

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16. Which of the following is true about the fundamental rights under Indian Constitution? (NET July 2018 Paper II)

(A) It is protected and enforced by the Constitution.

(B) It can be changed by the common legislative process.

(C) Supreme Court is the guardian of fundamental rights.

(D) All Constitutional rights are fundamental rights.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(a) (A) and (C) only

(b) (A) and (B) only

(c) (A), (B) and (D) only

(d) (A), (C) and (D) only

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17. Which of the following was not a feature of the Government of India Act, 1919? (NET July 2018 Paper II)

(a) Provision for a bicameral legislature at the centre.

(b) The Legislative Assembly would have an elected majority and control over ministers.

(c) Communal representation was not only retained but extended.

(d) Enlarged the electorates both for provinces and emperial legislature.

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18. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the code given below: (NET July 2018 Paper II)

Assertion (A): Presidential system provides for a stable governance model for a full term.

Reason (R): Centralization of power is inherent in presidential system.

Code:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

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19. Arrange the following in their chronological order: (NET December 2019 Paper II)

(1) Jalianwala Bagh Massacre

(2) Report Submission by Hunter Committee

(3) Chauri-Chaura incident

(4) Establishment of Swaraj Party

Choose the correct option:

(a) (1), (2), (3), (4)

(b) (4), (3), (2), (1)

(c) (1), (2), (4), (3)

(d) (4), (2), (1), (3)

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20. Which of the following two state-ments are correct regarding Preamble of Indian Constitution? (NET December 2019 Paper II)

(1) Justice-social, economic and political

(2) Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship

(3) Equality of status, character and of opportunity

(4) Fraternity assuring the dignity and respect of the individual

Choose the correct option:

(a) (1) and (3)

(b) (1) and (4)

(c) (3) and (4)

(d) (1) and (2)

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21. 73rd Amendment of the Constitution seeks to provide which of the following to the Panchayati Raj Institutions? (NET December 2019 Paper II)

(1) Constitutional status

(2) Financial autonomy

(3) Empowerment of marginalized sections of the rural population

(4) Decentralised planning

Choose the correct option from below:

(a) (1), (2) and (3)

(b) (1), (2), (3) and (4)

(c) (2), (3) and (4)

(d) (1), (2) and (4)

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22. Match the following: (NET December 2019 Paper II)

(a) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)

(b) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)

(c) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)

(d) (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)

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23. On which of the following grounds Writ of Certiorari can be issued by the Judiciary? (NET December 2019 Paper II)

(1) Lack of jurisdiction

(2) Locus Standi

(3) Excess of jurisdiction

(4) Error of law

Choose the correct option from below:

(a) (a), (b) and (c)

(b) (a), (b) and (d)

(c) (a) and (b)

(d) (a) and (c)

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24. Arrange the following four reports of Second Administrative Reforms Commission in their sequential order: (NET December 2019 Paper II)

(1) Right to Information

(2) Unlocking Human capital

(3) Crisis Management

(4) Ethics in Governance

Choose the correct option:

(a) (1), (2), (3), (4)

(b) (4), (3), (2), (1)

(c) (1), (4), (2), (3)

(d) (3), (1), (4), (2)

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25. Which statements are true about an Election Commissioner? (NET December 2019 Paper II)

(1) He is appointed by President

(2) He can be removed from office on same grounds as a Judge of Supreme Court

(3) He can be removed by the President only on recommendations of Chief Election Commissioner

(4) His term of office is six years or upto the age of 65 whichever is earlier

Choose the correct answer:

(a) (1), (2)

(b) (2), (3)

(c) (1), (3)

(d) (1), (3), (4)

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26. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India can undertake evaluation studies on the basis of which of the following? (NET December 2019 Paper II)

(1) On its own initiative

(2) The request of financial committees

(3) Directive in legislation

(4) The request of the Organization and Methods division of a Ministry

Choose the correct option from below:

(a) (1), (2), (3) and (4)

(b) (1), (2) and (4)

(c) (2), (3) and (4)

(d) (1), (2) and (3)

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27. Which constitutional provision provides for formation of a Gram Sabha? (NET December 2019 Paper II)

(a) Article 243 A

(b) Article 243 B

(c) Article 243 C

(d) Article 243 D

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28. Match the following: (NET December 2019 Paper II)

(a) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)- (i)

(b) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)- (iii)

(c) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (d)- (ii)

(d) (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)

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29. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides power to the President to promulgate ordinances? (NET December 2019 Paper II)

(a) Article 123

(b) Article 221

(c) Article 222

(d) Article 223

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30. Which of the following statements about the powers of the President is correct? (NET December 2019 Paper II)

(a) He presides over the meetings of the Zonal Councils

(b) He is the head of the Inter-State Council

(c) He can disqualify a member of Parliament under Art. 102 on the recommendation of the Election Commission

(d) He can declare national emergency at his discretion

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31. Under which constitutional provision, elections to Panchayati Raj Bodies are conducted in India? (NET December 2019 Paper II)

(a) Article 243 J

(b) Article 243 K

(c) Article 243 L

(d) Article 243 M

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32. Which of the following statements are true regarding the composition of Rajya Sabha? (NET December 2019 Paper II)

(A) Not more than 238 members represent States and Union territories in Rajya Sabha

(B) Representatives of Puducherry in the Rajya Sabha are elected

(C) Third Schedule of the Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha to States

(D) Fourth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha to states

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) (A) and (B)

(b) (B) and (C)

(c) (A) and (C)

(d) (A), (B) and (D)

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33. Arrange the following committees in chronological order: (NET June 2019 Paper II)

(A) Satish Chandra Committee

(B) Hota Committee

(C) Kothari Committee

(D) Yoginder K. Alagh Committee

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

(b) (C), (A), (D) and (B)

(c) (B), (D), (A) and (C)

(d) (D), (C), (A) and (B)

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34. The term 'ABCD' is primarily associated with which one of the following? (NET June 2019 Paper II)

(a) Formation of States

(b) Reorganization of States

(c) Decentralization of States

(d) Institutionalization of States

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35. Which of the following appoint- ments are made by the President of India by warrant under his sign and seal? (NET June 2019 Paper II)

(A) Judges of the Supreme Court of India

(B) Governor of a State

(C) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission

(D) Attorney-General of India Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

(b) (A), (B) and (C)

(c) (A), (B) and (D)

(d) (A) and (B)

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36. Which of the following are the detrimental effects of corruption on development? (NET June 2019 Paper II)

(A) Lower level of social services

(B) Lower economic growth

(C) Higher tax burden and fewer services

(D) Lower opportunities for farmers to sell their product

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) (A) and (B) only

(b) (B) and (D) only

(c) (B), (C) and (D)

(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

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37. Members of the Cabinet Mission Plan were: (NET June 2019 Paper II)

(a) Lord Pethick-Lawrence, Sir Stafford Cripps and A. V. Alexander

(b) Sir Stafford Cripps, A. V. Alexander and Lord Wavell

(c) Lord Pethick-Lawrence, A. V. Alexander and Lord Ripon Lord

(d) Sir Stafford Cripps, Lord Mountbatten and Pethick-Lawrence

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38. Which one of the following Commissions are statutory bodies? (NET June 2019 Paper II)

(A) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes

(B) National Commission for Human Rights

(C) National Commission for Minorities

(D) National Commission for Scheduled Castes

Select the correct answer from the given options:

(a) (A) and (B)

(b) (B), (C) and (D)

(c) (A) and (D)

(d) (B) and (C)

The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) was formed as a result of the 89th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003, which led to the bifurcation of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes into two separate bodies: one for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and another for Scheduled Tribes (STs).

Prior to this, the welfare of both SCs and STs was handled by a joint commission, the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, which had been established under Article 338 of the Indian Constitution.

In 2004, the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes was constituted under Article 338A, giving it the responsibility to safeguard and monitor the interests of STs. The commission is tasked with investigating issues related to the rights and welfare of STs, advising on policies for their development, and inquiring into violations of their rights. It plays a key role in ensuring constitutional safeguards and addressing grievances.
_____________

The National Commission for Human Rights (NCHR), formally known as the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India, was established on October 12, 1993, under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. The need for a human rights body arose in the early 1990s due to rising concerns over human rights violations, both globally and within India, in areas such as custodial violence, discrimination, and abuse of power.

The NHRC was created to investigate human rights abuses, including the right to life, liberty, equality, and dignity, as guaranteed by the Constitution or international covenants. The commission has the power to investigate complaints, intervene in court cases involving human rights issues, and make recommendations to the government.

The NHRC comprises a chairperson, usually a retired Chief Justice of India, along with other members from judicial, human rights, and related fields, who are tasked with protecting and promoting human rights across the country.
_____________

The National Commission for Minorities (NCM) was established in 1993 by the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992, to safeguard and promote the rights of India's religious minorities. Initially, the government of India identified six religious communities—Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Parsis, and Jains (added in 2014)—as minorities under the National Commission for Minorities Act.

The NCM was formed to address issues faced by these communities, ensure their constitutional rights, and promote their welfare. The commission is tasked with monitoring the implementation of safeguards provided for minorities in the Constitution and laws, examining complaints of discrimination, and making recommendations for policy changes to the government.

The NCM consists of a chairperson and members appointed by the government, representing various minority communities, and plays a key role in fostering communal harmony and addressing grievances of minority communities across India.
____________

The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) was established under Article 338 of the Indian Constitution to safeguard and promote the interests of Scheduled Castes (SCs). The Commission was first constituted in 1950, with its primary purpose being to investigate and monitor the implementation of safeguards provided for SCs and to address grievances related to their rights and welfare.

Key functions of the NCSC include:

Investigating complaints and taking suo motu notice of matters related to the rights of SCs.
Reviewing and recommending measures for the improvement of the social and economic conditions of SCs.
Monitoring the implementation of various laws and schemes intended for the upliftment of SCs.

The Commission is composed of a chairperson and members appointed by the President of India. Its role is crucial in ensuring that the rights of SCs are protected and that they receive fair treatment and equal opportunities.

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39. Which of the following Commis- sions/Committees has recom- mended the creation of a District Council in every district with representatives from both urban and rural areas? (NET June 2019 Paper II)

(a) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

(b) L. M. Singhvi Committee

(c) Ashok Mehta Committee

(d) Second Administrative Reforms Commission

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40. Madan Mohan Punchhi Commission was appointed to study (NET June 2019 Paper II)

(a) Centre-State Relations

(b) State Reorganisation

(c) Panchayati Raj

(d) Delimitation of Constituencies

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41. Match List-I with List-II: (NET June 2019 Paper II)

(a) (A)-(iii); (B)-(iv); (C)-(i); (D)–(ii)

(b) (A)-(ii); (B)-(i); (C)-(iv); (D)–(iii)

(c) (A)-(iii); (B)-(i); (C)-(iv); (D)–(ii)

(d) (A)-(i); (B)-(ii); (C)-(iii); (D)–(iv)

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42. Match List-I with List-II: (NET June 2019 Paper II)

(a) (A)-(ii); (B)-(i); (C)-(iv); (D)–(iii)

(b) (A)-(iii); (B)-(i); (C)-(iv); (D)–(ii)

(c) (A)-(iii); (B)-(iv); (C)-(i); (D)–(ii)

(d) (A)-(ii); (B)-(i); (C)-(iii); (D)–(iv)

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43. Which one of the following services is not mentioned in the Constitution? (NET June 2019 Paper II)

(a) Indian Administrative Service (IAS)

(b) Indian Police Service (IPS)

(a) Indian Foreign Service (IFS)

(a) Indian Judicial Service (IJS)

(e) Question or option are wrong

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44. Which one of the following is the Nodal Ministry for the National Human Rights Commission? (NET June 2019 Paper II)

(a) Ministry of Human Resource Development

(b) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

(c) Ministry of Home Affairs

(d) Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions

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45. The total number of Ministers including Prime Minister and Deputy Prime Minister shall not exceed (NET June 2019 Paper II)

(a) 20% members of the Lok Sabha

(b) 10% members of the Lok Sabha

(c) 15% members of the Lok Sabha

(d) 25% members of the Lok Sabha

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46. In which case was it declared that the Preamble is NOT the part of the Constitution? (NET June 2019 Paper II)

(a) Kesavananda Bharati case

(b) Maneka Gandhi case

(c) Vishakha case

(d) Berubari case

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47. The Supreme Court of India has the power to adjudicate disputes between the Union and the States through (NET June 2019 Paper II)

(a) Appellate Jurisdiction

(b) Original Jurisdiction

(c) Advisory Jurisdiction

(d) Writ Jurisdiction

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48. Which one of the following is NOT a classified category of political parties as defined by the Election Commission of India? (NET June 2019 Paper II)

(a) National Parties

(b) State Parties

(c) Regional Parties

(d) Registered Parties (Unrecognized)

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49. Which of the following taxes are levied by the Union but are collected and appropriated by the States? (NET June 2019 Paper II)

(A) Stamp duties

(B) Excise duties on medical and toilet materials

(C) Sales tax

(D) Land revenue

Select the correct answer from the given options:

(a) (A) and (B) only

(b) (B) and (C) only

(c) (A), (B) and (C)

(d) (C) and (D) only

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50. Given below are two statements: (NET June 2020 Paper II)

Statement I: Every constitution has a philosophy of its own.

Statement II: For the philosophy underlying Indian Constitution. we must look back into the historic Objective Resolution moved by Pandit Nehru.

In the light of the above statements. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

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51. Given below are two statements: (NET June 2020 Paper II)

Statement I: India has deliberately been christened as a 'Union of states' instead of a 'federation of states' by the Constitution.

Statement II: The word 'Union' does indicate a particular type of federation that Constitution makers envisaged for India.

In the light of the above statements, Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

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52. Given below are two statements: (NET June 2020 Paper II)

Statement I: Chaudhary Charan Singh was the only Prime Minister in India who did not face the Parliament.

Statement II: Passage of a no confidence motion in Lok Sabha leads to the ouster of a government from office.

In the light of the above statements. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

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53. Arrange the following Parliamentary Committees in order of their formation: (NET June 2020 Paper II)

(A) Estimates Committee

(B) Departmental Standing Committee

(C) Public Accounts Committee

(D) Committee on Public Undertakings

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) (A), (B), (C), (D)

(b) (D), (C), (B), (A)

(c) (C), (A), (D), (B)

(d) (B), (C), (D), (A)

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54. Arrange the following freedoms mentioned in Article 19 of the constitution in the order of the appearance (NET June 2020 Paper II)

(A) Form Associations or unions

(B) Practice any profession

(C) Move freely throughout the territory of India

(D) Assemble peaceably and without arms

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) (C), (B), (A), (D)

(b) (D), (A), (C), (B)

(c) (A), (B), (C), (D)

(d) (B), (C), (D), (A)

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55. Match List-I with List-II: (NET June 2020 Paper II)

(a) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

(b) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

(c) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II). (C)-(III), (D)-(I)

(d) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

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56. Which of the following features of the Indian political system are false? (NET June 2020 Paper II)

(A) Dual government

(B) Supremacy of the Parliament

(C) Indestructability of the union

(D) Indestructability of the states

Choose the correct answer from the options give below:

(a) A and B only

(b) B and C only

(c) B and D only

(d) C and D only

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57. Which of the following statement is false about the Indian federalism? (NET June 2020 Paper II)

(a) it is a good example of 'holding together' federation

(b) it has a tendency of strong Central Government

(c) it reflects the spirit of 'coming together' federation

(d) it has been referred to as 'quasi federal' system

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58. Who among the following was strongly opposed to the idea of Panchayati Raj system in India? (NET June 2020 Paper II)

(a) B. R. Ambedkar

(b) Jaya Prakash Narayan

(c) Ram Manohar Lohia

(d) Mahatma Gandhi

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59. Which article of the Indian Constitution is associated with judicial activism? (NET June 2020 Paper II)

(a) 14

(b) 21

(c) 18

(d) 25

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60. In which of the following subjects. Rajya Sabha has got more power than Lok Sabha? (NET June 2020 Paper II)

(a) Ratification of President's rule in a state

(b) Creation of a new All India Service

(c) Creation of Legislation Council in a state

(d) Alteration in the boundary of a state

61 / 100

61. Consider the following regarding citizenship – (NET 2022 Paper II October Shift I)

(A) A citizen is known by the rights, he is allowed to exercise

(B) A person living in the state territory is a citizen of state

(C) Citizenship can be granted through process of naturalization

(D) If one is born in the territory of a state, he will be recognized as a citizen

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a. A, B, C Only

b. B, C, D Only

c. A, C, D Only

d. A, B, D, Only

62 / 100

62. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Advisory Committee of the Constituent Assembly? (NET 2022 Paper II October Shift I)

a. Rajendra Prasad

b. Jawaharlal Nehru

c. Vallabhbhai Patel

d. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

63 / 100

63. No money bill can be introduced in the legislative Assembly without the recommendation of the ________. (NET 2022 Paper II October Shift I)

a. Speaker

b. Governor

c. Chief Minister

d. Finance Minister

64 / 100

64. Which is the correct sequencing of these movements in India. (NET 2022 Paper II October Shift I)

(A) Quit India Movement

(B) Non-Co-Operation Movement

(C) Civil Disobedience movement

(D) Total Revolution movement

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a. B, C, A, D

b. D, C, A, B

c. B, C. D, A

d. D, B, C, A

65 / 100

65. Arrange in order: (NET 2022 Paper II October Shift I)

The right to Freedom of Religion as enshrined in the Constitution of India.

(A) Freedom to manage religious affairs

(B) Freedom as to payment of taxes for the promotion of any particular religion

(C) Freedom of conscience and free profession, practise and propagation of religion

(D) Freedom as to attendance at religious instructions or religious worship in certain educational institutions.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a. C, A, B, D

b. B, A, D, C

c. A, B, C, D

d. B, A, C, D

66 / 100

66. Which of the following has caused the growth of Cooperative federalism in India? (NET 2022 Paper II October Shift I)

(A) Union – State collaboration in economic matters

(B) Union – State legislative relations

(C) Compulsion of development finance

(D) Dynamic of electoral politics

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a. A, C Only

b. A, D Only

c. B, C Only

d. B, D Only

67 / 100

67. Given below are two statements: One is labeled A Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R. (NET 2022 Paper II October Shift I)

Assertion (A): India has a hybrid system of government

Reason (R): The hybrid system combines two classical models; the British tradition and American principles.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

a. Both (A) and (B) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

b. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT correct explanation of (A)

c. (A) is correct but (R) Is not

d. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

68 / 100

68. Which of the following are related to electoral reform in India? (NET October 2022 Paper II Shift I)

(A) Dinesh Goswami Committee

(B) Indrajit Gupta Committee

(C) Tarkunde Committee

(D) Santhanam Committee

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a. A, B Only

b. B, C Only

c. A, B, C Only

d. A, B, C, D Only

69 / 100

69. Article 169 of the constitution makes the provision for the abolition or creation of – (NET October 2022 Paper II Shift I)

a. Legislative Council in State

b. Specifies the number of seats for the Rajya Sabha

c. All India Services

d. None of the above

70 / 100

70. In which case the Supreme Court of India ruled that the provision of Judicial review comes under an essential feature of the Indian Constitution. (NET October 2022 Paper II Shift I)

a. S. R. Bommai case

b. Golaknath case

c. Minerva Mills case

d. Indira Sahani case

71 / 100

71. Place the following legislative acts in chronological orders: (NET JUNE 2023 Shift II)

A. Right to Information Act

B. Consumer Protection Act

C. Right to Education Act

D. Lokpal and Lokayukta Act

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B. A. D. C

2. A. C. D. B

3. A. B. C. D

4. C. A. D. B

72 / 100

72. Which of the following Commissions/Committees recommended for the establishment of the Lokpal and Lokayukta for First time? (NET JUNE 2023 Shift II)

1. First Administrative Reforms commission

2. Santhanam Committee

3. A. D Gorwala Committee

4. IInd Pay Commission

73 / 100

73. In which year did the amendment to the Constitution extend the Panchayati raj provisions to the scheduled areas? (NET June 2023 Shift II)

1. 1992

2. 1995

3. 1996

4. 1997

74 / 100

74. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Supreme Court of India? (NET June 2023 Shift II)

A. Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996, International Commercial Arbitration can also be

B. initiated in the Supreme Court.

C. The Supreme Court has special advisory Jurisdiction under Article 143.

D. Article 32 of the Constitution gives an extensive original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court with regard to enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A and B only

2. B and C only

3. A and C only

4. A, B, C only

75 / 100

75. Which among the following is not included in the right to life under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution as interpreted by the Supreme Court? (NET June 2023 Shift II)

1. Right to suicide

2. Right to privacy

3. Right against public hanging

4. Right to good health

76 / 100

76. What is the correct chronological sequence of the below? (NET June 2023 Shift I)

A. Joint Parliamentary Committee on Reform of Electoral law

B. Goswami Committee on electoral Reforms

C. Tarkunde Committee on Electoral Reforms

D. Election Commission's campaign against criminalization of politics.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A. C. B. D

2. A, B, D. C

3. B. C. A. D

4. C. D. A. B

77 / 100

77. Arrange the following Directive Principles of State Policy in their sequential order as mentioned in the constitution (NET June 2023 Shift I)

A. To organize village Panchayat

B. To secure the right to work

C. To make provision for just and humane condition

D. To secure a living wage, decent standard of life

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B. C. D. A

2. A, B, C. D

3. C. B. A. D

4. C. A. D. B

78 / 100

78. Identify the correct chronological sequence of the following: (NET June 2023 Shift I)

A. Keshvanand Bharti vs State of Kerala case

B. Minerva Mills Ltd. and others Vs. Union of India case

C. Golaknath and others Vs state of Punjab case

D. Maneka Gandhi vs Union of India case

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. C. B. A. D

2. C. A. D. B

3. A. B. C. D

4. B. C. D. A

79 / 100

79. Which amongst these resolutions were not concerned with minority rights? (NET June 2023 Shift I)

A. Nehru's constitutional Draft, 1928

B. Karachi resolution, 1931

C. The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce Act), Bill, 1986

D. Triple Talaq Bill, 2018

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. A and B only

2. B and C only

3. C and D only

4. A. B and C only

80 / 100

80. Which of the following rights are declared as Fundamental rights under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution? (NET June 2023 Shift I)

A. Right against public Hanging

B. Right to sustainable development

C. Right to Livelihood

D. Right to Free education up to 16 years of age.

E. Right to Reputation

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C, D and E only

2. A. B, C and E only

3. C, D and E only

4. A. B. D, E only

81 / 100

81. The Governor is entrusted with pardoning powers which include the power to: (NET June 2023 Shift I)

A. Suspend the sentence

B. Commute the sentence

C. Grant remission of punishment

D. Grant Pardon

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. A. B, C and D only

2. B, C and D only

3. A and B only

4. C and D only

82 / 100

82. How many minimum members of Rajya Sabha are required to move a motion of impeachment of a judge? (NET 2023 JUNE Shift I)

1. 40

2. 45

3. 50

4. 55

83 / 100

83. Arrange the following, 2nd Administrative Reforms Commission reports in the sequential order. (NET March 2023 Shift II)

A. Ethics in Governance

B. Public Order

C. Local Governance

D. Crisis Management

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C, D

2. B, C, D, A

3. D, C, A, B

4. D, A, B, C

84 / 100

84. What is the correct order in which the following terms are enshrined in the preamble of the Constitution: (NET March 2023 Shift II)

A. Equality

B. Liberty

C. Justice

D. Fraternity

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C, D

2. C, B, A, D

3. B, A, C, D

4. D, A, B, C

85 / 100

85. Match List I with List II: (NET March 2023 Shift II)

1. A - I, B-III, C-II, D - IV

2. A-I, B-II, C-III, D - IV

3. A - II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

4. A - III, B - II, C-I, D-IV

86 / 100

86. Given below are two statements: (NET March 2023 Shift II)

Statement I: India's form of federalism is best seen as an original rather than a derivative or diminished form.

Statement II: India has defined its own constitutional practice of federalism rather than following earlier blueprint.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

87 / 100

87. Given below are two statements: (NET March 2023 Shift II)

Statement I: Equality before the law is not applicable to the President of India

Statement II: The President of India enjoys special privileges under the Constitution of India

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

88 / 100

88. Who among the following are included in GST Council (NET March 2023 Shift II)

A. The Union Finance Minister

B. The Prime Minister of India

C. The Union Minister of State in-charge of Revenue or Finance

D. The Minister in-charge of Finance or Taxation or any other Minister nominated by each state Government

E. The Finance secretary of the Government of India

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and C only.

2. C, D and E only.

3. A, C and D only.

4. A, B, C and D only.

89 / 100

89. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding composition of the Constituent Assembly? (NET March 2023 Shift II)

A. Each princely state was to be allotted seats in proportion to their population.

B. Seats allotted to each British province were divided between Muslims, and Sikhs and other general population

C. The seats allotted to other community were to be elected by the member of that community in provincial legislative assembly

D. In the above process, proportional representation by means of single transferable vote system was followed

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and C only.

2. B, C and D only.

3. A, C and D only.

4. A, B, C and D.

90 / 100

90. What was the objective of Vande Bharat Mission? (NET March 2023 Shift II)

1. To repatriate distressed Indian nationals from outside India

2. To repatriate distressed Indian nationals from Eastern India

3. To repatriate distressed Indian nationals from Western India

4. To repatriate distressed Indian nationals from Southern India

91 / 100

91. As of now, which one of the following statements concerning the three lists - Union, State and Concurrent is incorrect? (NET March 2023 Shift II)

1. State list comprises of 61 subjects

2. Union list contains 97 subjects

3. Concurrent list consists of 52 subjects

4. Original concurrent list consists of 47 subjects

92 / 100

92. The philosophy of the constitutions is inspired and shaped through the (NET March 2023 Shift II)

1. Constituent Assembly's first meeting on the 9th December 1946

2. Constituent Assembly's resolution on 22nd January 1947

3. Constituent Assembly's Meeting of 31st October 1947

4. Constituent Assembly's Second reading on 14th November 1949

93 / 100

93. Who among the following is associated with Supreme Court's Judgment on live streaming of SC case proceedings? (NET March 2023 Shift II)

1. Indira Jai Singh

2. Mukul Rohatgi

3. Ram Jethmalani

4. Kapil Sibbal

94 / 100

94. Who has conceptualised India's constitutional edifice in terms of "a seamless web"? (NET March 2023 Shift II)

1. D. D. Basu

2. Granville Austin

3. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

4. K. M. Munshi

95 / 100

95. Which of the following articles of the Constitution of India has provision for the forming of Council of Ministers and to aid and advise the President of India? (NET March 2023 Shift II)

1. Article 71

2. Article 74

3. Article 55

4. Article 56

96 / 100

96. Which of the following is not correct regarding original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court? (NET March 2023 Shift II)

1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more states

2. A dispute between two or more states

3. Article 32 of the Indian Constitution gives us extensive original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in regard to the enforcement of Fundamental Rights

4. The Supreme Court has also a wide original jurisdiction over all Court and Tribunals

97 / 100

97. Which of the following acts abolished the Diarchy System in the Provinces and introduced the provincial autonomy? (NET March 2023 Shift II)

1. Government of India Act 1909

2. Government of India Act 1919

3. Government of India Act 1935

4. Government of Indian Independence Act 1947

98 / 100

98. Arrange the following Anti-Corruption measures taken by Government of India in chronological order: (NET March 2023 Shift I)

A. Ratification of the United Nations Convention Against Corruption (UNCAC)

B. Black Money (Undisclosed foreign income and assets) and Imposition of Tax Act

C. The Prevention of Money Laundering Act

D. The Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (D), (A), (B), (C)

2. (D), (C), (A), (B)

3. (D), (C), (B), (A)

4. (D), (B), (C), (A)

99 / 100

99. Arrange the following directive principles of state policy in a sequential order as mentioned in the Constitution of India. (NET March 2023 Shift I)

A. Equal pay for equal work for men and women

B. To secure a uniform civil code throughout the country for all citizen

C. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor

D. Separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A), (B), (C) and (D)

2. (A), (C), (B) and (D)

3. (C), (A), (B) and (D)

4. (D), (B), (C) and (A)

100 / 100

100. Match List I with List II: (NET March 2023 Shift I)

1. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

2. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

3. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

4. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

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