1. The Judgement in the S. R. Bommai Vs Union of the India case pertained broadly to which Article of the Constitution of India? (KERALA SET JANUARY 2023)

2. Under Article 213, the Governor of a state is empowered to: (KERALA SET JANUARY 2023)

3. The Articles of the Constitution of India which give exclusive powers to Rajya Sabha: (KERALA SET JANUARY 2023)

4. Identify the Articles of the Constitution of India which have a bearing on the rights of women: (KERALA SET JANUARY 2023)

1. Article 15

2. Article 39

3. Article 42

4. Article 123

5. The article of Indian constitution which directs the State to protect and improve the environment, forests and wild life: (KERALA SET JANUARY 2023)

6. Choose the correct statement/s from the following: (KERALA SET JANUARY 2023)

1. The shortest Article of the Indian constitution is Article 52

2. Article 72 mentions about the pardoning power of President.

7. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to amend the  Constitution? (University of Hyderabad MA 2020)

8. ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India? (Current Affairs)

9. Recently, The Supreme Court of India has declared the Electoral bond scheme is unconstitutional. Which article of the Indian Constitutional was clashing with the electoral bond scheme?

10. Which articles of the following specifically can be related to madrasa education? (Current Affairs)

11. Recently, the Supreme Court has released an order that says "Rights against Climate Change is a Fundamental Rights". Which of the following two articles from the list of fundamental rights are related to this according to the Supreme Court? (Current Affairs)

12. Which article of the Constitution of India contains the list of Fundamental Duties? (Presidency University Bachelor Degree Entrance Test 2019)

13. Which article of Indian constitution is related to Jammu & Kashmir? (Presidency University Bachelor Degree Entrance Test 2019)

14. Which statements are correct in the following?  (PUBDET 2023)

(i) The concept of Judicial review serves the purpose of social justice.

(ii) Judicial review can lead to judicial activism.

(iii) It is against the ethos of the Constitution.

(iv) Article 13 and 32 help to protect the spirit of judicial review.

15. Which Article explains the original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court? (Presidency University Bachelor Degree Entrance Test 2023 Paper IV)

16. Which articles of Indian Constitution guarantee Right to Equality? (Presidency University Bachelor Degree Entrance Test 2023 Paper IV)

17. Which of the following statements are true about Centre-State relations? (Presidency University Bachelor Degree Entrance Test 2017)

(1) During the proclamation of emergency (Article 352) the Centre can give direction to a State on any matter.

(2) During the proclamation of emergency (Article 352) President can modify the constitutional distribution of revenues between the Centre & the States.

18. In which Article of the Indian Constitution there is provision of Abolition or creation of Legislative Councils in States? (Maharashtra SET 2024 Paper II)

19. Which article of the Indian Constitution and Which section of the Citizenship Act of 1955 prohibit the acquisition dual citizenship in India? (Current Affairs)

20. Which among the following is NOT covered under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution? (CUET PG 2024)

21. Passage 3: Read the passages given below and answer the questions No. 32-35

UN support for the rights of women began with the Organization's founding Charter.  Among the purposes ofthe UN declared in Article I of its Ch~rter is "To achieve  international co-operation ... in promoting and encouraging respect for human rights  and for fondamental freedoms for all without distinction as to race, sex, language, or  religion." Within the UN's first year, the Economic and Social Council established  its Commission on the Status of Women, as the principal global policy-making body dedicated exclusively to gender equality 'and advancement of women. Among its  earliest accomplishments was ensuring gender neutral language in the draft Universal  Declaration of Human Rights. The landmark Declaration, adopted by the General  Assembly on 10 December 1948, reaffirms that "All human beings are born free and  equal in dignity and rights" and that "everyone is entitled to all the rights and freedoms set forth in this Declaration, without distinction of any kind, such as race,  colour, sex, language, religion, ... birth or other status."

As the international feminist movement began to gain momentum during the 1970s,  the General Assembly declared 1975 as the International Women's Year and organized  the first World Conference on Women, held in Mexico City. At the urging of the  Conference, it subsequently declared the years 1976-1985 as the UN Decade for Women, and established a Voluntary Fund for Decade. In 1979, the General Assembly  adopted the Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against  Women (CEDAW), which is often described as an International Bill of Rights for  Women. In its 30 articles, the Convention explicitly defines discrimination against  women and sets up an agenda for national action to end such discrimination. The  Convention targets culture and tradition as influential forces shaping gender roles and  family relations, and it is the first human rights treaty to affirm the reproductive rights  of women.

Five years after the Mexico City conference, a Second World Conference on Women  was held in Copenhagen in 1980. The resulting Programme of Action called for  stronger national measures to ensure women's ownership and control of property, as  well as iniprovements in women's rights with respect to inheritance, child custody and  loss of nationality. In 1985, the World Conference to Review and Appraise the Achievements of the United Nations Decade for Women: Equality, Development and  Peace, was held in Nairobi. It was convened at a time when the movement for gender  equality had finally gained true global recognition, and 15,000 representatives of non governmental organizations (NGOs) participated in'a parallel NGO Forum. The event was described by many as "the birth of global feminism". Realizing that the goals of  the Mexico City Conference had not been adequately met, the 157 participating governments adopted the Nairobi Forward-looking Strategies to the Year 2000. The  document broke new ground by declaring all issues to be women's issues.

[United Nations, Gender Equality. https://www.un.org!en/sections/issues]

The aim of a gender neutral language is to: (University of Hyderabad M.Phil 2019)

22. Which of the following best encapsulates Article 368 of India's Constitution? (University of Hyderabad MA 2017)

23. Comprehension: Read the passages given below and answer the questions No. 13-20

Constitutionalism is commonly conceived to be the idea that there are legal constraints on the exercise of political authority. It places limits on state action, and conformity with the constitution becomes a guiding principle. But constitutions cannot be expected to remain static or place permanent restrictions on the future, and typically provide a means through which they can change. To prevent constitutionalism from becoming a hollow ideal, formal constitutional change is typically designed to be difficult. Sometimes a constitution sets a special threshold for changing the constitution; one that is higher than the ordinary entrenchment lever for standard laws. Although the Indian Constitution's requirement is nowhere as high as the Article V standard in the American Constitution, it nonetheless imposes a higher requirement for amending the Constitution as compared with enacting ordinary laws. This amending power is set forth in Article 368 and requires a supermajority: a two-thirds majority in Parliament and, in certain cases, the consent of half the states. Article 368 outlines the general amending power, and in some exceptional cases Parliament may change the Constitution through a simple majority.

(Source: Madhav Khosla, Oxford India Short Introductions to the Indian Constitution (New Delhi: OUP, 2014, Fifth Impression, pp.149-50).

Q. Why does a constitution lay down difficult amendment procedures? (University of Hyderabad MA 2017)

24. With which of the following articles would you associate Uniform Civil Code? (University of Hyderabad MA 2017)

25. Whether Presidential Proclamation under Article 356 was justiciable and if so to what extent? Whether the dissolved Legislature can be revived if the proclamation is set aside? Whether the validity of the Proclamation can be challenged after it has been approved by Parliament? In which of the following court cases were these questions asked? (University of Hyderabad MA 2019)

26. "Such articles will never be called into operation and they would remain a dead letter. Ifat all they are brought into operation, I hope the president, who is endowed with these powers, will take proper precautions before actually suspending the administration of the provinces." Ambedkar. Which Article of the Indian Constitution does this speech refer to? (University of Hyderabad MA 2019)

27. Match the following Articles with their explanation in the Indian Constitution  (University of Hyderabad MA 2021)

28. Which of the following Articles were not part of the original Constitution of India? (JNU MA 2019)

29. The Constitution of India mandates that under Articles 358 and 359 Fundamental Rights can be suspended during the Emergency if proclaimed by the President under Article 352. However the fundamental rights given under two Articles mentioned in the part III of the Constitution cannot be suspended. Mark the relevant articles among the following ones. (JNU MA 2020)

30. Consider the following statements related to Jammu and Kashmir: (JNU MA 2020)

A. The accession of Jammu and Kashmir to India happened on 26 October 1947.

B. Jammu and Kashmir became a Union Territory on 31 October 2019.

C. The final draft of Article 306-A with modification was inserted in the Indian Constitution as Article 370.

D. The President issued Constitution (applicable to Jammu and Kashmir) Order of 1954 that superseded 1954 Constitution Order.

Which of the statements mentioned above are correct?

31. The Article 124(3)(C) of the Constitution of India provides for the appointment of a distinguished jurist by the President as a judge in the Supreme Court of India. Consider the names of the following former Chief Justices/Judges of the Supreme Court: (JNU MA 2020)

A. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer

B. Justice M. Patanjali Sastri

C. Justice P.N. Bhagwati

D. Justice H.R. Khanna

Who among the above mentioned judges were appointed as per the Article 124(3)(C)?

32. Consider the following statements related to India’s Constitution. (JNU MA 2020)

A. The two articles explicating writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the High Courts for the enforcement of fundamental rights are Articles 32 and 226.

B. Writs are in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari.

C. Article 226 is it broader in its scope as empowers high courts to issue directions, or writs not simply for the protection of fundamental rights but also for any other purpose.

D. Writs for the protection for fundamental rights cannot be issued to non-state bodies even if they are performing a public duty.

Which of the statements mentioned above are correct?

33. Which article of the Constitution of India provides with presenting a statement of estimated receipts and expenditure by the Government of India to the Parliament every year? (JNU MA 2021)

34. Which article of the Constitution of India makes provisions for the Public Service Commissions for the Union and for the States? (JNU MA 2021)

35. Which of the following are characteristics of federalism in India? (JNU MA 2021)

A. Article 1 of the Constitution refers to a 'Union of States'

B. The term central government was not used in the original Constitution

C. The term Union government has been used more often to refer to the union government at the centre

D. Asymmetrical federalism

E. Residuary powers are with the states

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

36. Which of the following statements are true about the basic structure doctrine of the Indian Constitution? (JNU MA 2021)

A. The term basic structure is mentioned in the Constitution

B. The term was enunciated in the Kesavananda Bharati case of 1973

C. The power to amend the Constitution is to be found in article 368 and is given to Parliament

D. The basic structure doctrine seeks to restrict Parliament's ability to amend the Constitution in a fundamental way

37. Which of the following hold true for the Puttaswamy vs. Union of India judgment of the Supreme Court of India? (JNU MA 2021)

A. There was a nine judge bench with Justice J.S Khehar asthe Chief Justice of India

B. The judgment was not unanimous

C. Right to privacy was upheld as a fundamental right to be derived from Article 21

D. The judgment was passed in August 2017

38. Which article of the Indian Constitution gives the Supreme Court the power to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights (DU MA 2020)

39. Article 371 A of the Indian constitution provides special protections to which of the following states :- (DU MA 2019)

40. "If I was asked to name any particular article in this Constitution as the most important- an article without which this Constitution would be a nullity- I could not refer to any other article except this one." - Ambedkar was referring to which article? (DU MA 2019)

41. Article 18 of the Indian constitution deals with (DU MA 2021)

42. Which article bars the interference of the Judiciary in the matter of polls conducted by the Election Commission of India? (DU MA 2021)

43. Consider the following statements with respect to the Election Commission of India: (DU MA 2021)

A. The term of office of the Election Commissioners is the same as the Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission.

B. In case of a difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and/or other Election Commissioners, the matter is referred to the President of India.

C. Independence of the Election Commission and its insulation from executive interference is ensured by a special provision under Article 324 of the Constitution of India.

Choose the correct statements from the options given below

44. Which article states 'no person can be excluded from the electoral roll on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex or any of them? (DU MA 2022)

45. The Right to Free and Compulsory Education can be found in which Article of the Constitution? (DU MA 2022)

46. Which Article of Indian Constitution provides greater autonomy to the J&K compare to the other states of India? (DU MA 2018)

47. The superintendence, direction and control of elections to be vested in an Election Commission (Article 324 of the Constitution of India) came into force on: (NET December 2020 & June 2021 Paper-II)

48. Which of the following statements are incorrect with regard to the Finance Commission? (NET December 2020 & June 2021 Paper-II)

A. The provision of Finance Commission has been mentioned in Article -280 of the Constitution.

B. Finance Commission shall consist of Chairman and two members.

C. Finance Commission submits its recommendations to the Parliament.

D. The Parliament is authorized to determine the qualifications for appointment as member of the commission.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

49. The Supreme Court Of India in its order dated 24th August 2017 in Justice. K.S. Pultaswamy (Retd) vs Union of India declared that: (NET December 2020 & June 2021 Paper-II)

A. The right to privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 and as a part of the freedoms.

B. The Union government must amend the Constitution and add a provision for the right to privacy.

C. The right to privacy is protected by Article 14 (equality before the law), Article 19 (Right to freedom), Article 21 (Protection of life and personal liberty).

D. Right to privacy is derived from Article 25 (Right to freedom of religion) and Article 14 (Protection of interests of minorities)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

50. Which Fundamental Rights are available to all persons? (CUET PG 2022)

A. Protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20)

B. Protection of life and personal liberty (Article 21)

C. Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases (Article 22)

D. Freedom of religion (Article 25-28)

E. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste or place of birth (Article 15)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

51. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. (CUET PG 2022)

Assertion A: The powers within the Supervisory Jurisdiction of the High Courts are both administrative and judicial in nature.

Reason R: Article 227(1) gives the High Courts power of Superintendence over all courts and tribunals within their territorial and constitutional jurisdiction.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

52. Which of the following is/are correct? (CUET PG 2022)

A. Article 143 provides for the power of President to consult Supreme Court.

B. The opinion of the Supreme Court is not binding.

C. The Supreme Court is not bound to give opinion on the subject so referred.

D. The Supreme Court would respectfully decline to answer with reference if it is improper, inadvisable and undesirable.

E. The Supreme Court is bound to give opinion.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

53. Which of the following articles were not inserted by the Forty-second Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976? (CUET PG 2022)

A. Article 21A

B. Article 31A

C. Article 39A

D. Article 43A

E. Article 48A

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

54. Reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the House of the People is provided under which article of the Constitution? (CUET PG 2022)

55. Which of the Constitutional provisions doesn't/don't come within the legislative jurisdiction of the Legislature of a State? (CUET PG 2022)

A. Matters relating to clause 3 of article 16

B. Matters relating to article 32

C. Matters relating to article 33

D. Matters relating to article 34

E. Matters relating to clause 4 of article 16

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

56. Asymmetrical features of federalism in India include: (CUET PG 2022)

A. Fifth Schedule

B. Sixth Schedule

C. Article 371 A

D. Article 371 G

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

57. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): (CUET PG 2023)

Assertion (A): Reservation of a State bill for the assent of the President is a discretionary power of the Governor.

Reason (R): This could be achieved through amending Article 156 of the Indian Constitution.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

58. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): (CUET PG 2023)

Assertion (A): Judicial review is a process to restrain the executive or the legislature from exercising power which may not be sanctioned by the Constitution.

Reason (R): The source of the power of judicial review in India is Article 12 of the Constitution.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

59. Article 226 of the Indian Constitution deals with (CUET PG 2023)

60. Given below are two statements: (CUET PG 2023)

Statement: The idea of single citizenship in the constitution of India is adapted from British constitution

Statement II: Fundamental duties under article 51-A of Indian constitution is adapted from French constitution

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

61. Which Article of the Constitution of India states "The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister"? (CUET PG 2021)

62. Which Article of the Constitution of India contains the provision for Financial Emergency in the Constitution of India? (CUET PG 2021)

63. Articles 52-62 of the Constitution of India are concerned with (CUET PG 2021)

64. Article 21 declares that 'No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law'. The protection under article 21 is (Presidency University Masters Entrance Questions 2017)

65. Under which Article of Constitution was Election Commission of India established? (Madhya Pradesh SET 2022)

66. According to under which Article the President of India has right to address the joint session of both the Houses of Parliament? (Madhya Pradesh SET 2022)

67. Article 356 of the Indian Constitution pertains to (GUJARAT SET 2022)

68. Which of the following articles of Indian Constitution deals with dismissal and removal of person in civil service? (Himachal Pradesh SET 2017)

69. Which of the following articles deal with the power of judicial review as exercised by the Supreme Court and the High Courts? (Himachal Pradesh SET 2017)

70. Which of the following is prescribed by the Article 51 of the Indian Constitution as the guiding principle of Indian Foreign Policy? (GUJARAT SET 2021 DEC)

71. Right to Privacy is related to which one of the following articles? (Himachal Pradesh SET 2017)

72. Article 243 of the Constitution of India is related with (SLET 17th March 2024)

73. Which Article of the Constitution of India is associated with Judicial Activism? (SLET 17th March 2024)

74. Consider the following statements: (SLET 17th March 2024)

(a) In case of money bill, Speaker of Lok Sabha has to certify in the following manner- "I hereby certify that this bill is a money bill within the meaning of Article 110 of the Constitution of India."

(b) Money bill can be introduced in either House of the Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is correct?

75. Below are some statements which are either True or False. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (SLET 17th March 2024)

(a) Pylee described India's Constitution as Quasi Federal.

(b) Article 3 of Indian Constitution deals with the creation of new states.

(c) Article 170 deals with Discretionary Powers of the Governor.

(d) Articles 40, 41 lay down the Right to Constitutional Remedies.

Codes :

76. Which Article of the Indian Constitution says "India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States"? (SLET 17th March 2024)

77. Article 368 of the Indian Constitution is concerned with : (GUJARAT SET 2019 DEC)

78. Which right cannot be suspended during national emergency in India under Article 352? (Bihar PGT 2023)

79. ‘Rule of law’ is implicit in the Constitution of India in Article (Bihar PGT 2023)

80. Consider the following statements with respect to the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013 (TELANGANA SET 2022)

1. Sexual harassment results in violation of the fundamental rights of a woman to equality under articles 14 and 15 of the Constitution of India.

2. As per the act Every office is required to constitute an Internal Complaints Committee with minimum of 100 or more employees.

81. Consider the following statements in relation to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) and choose the correct code: (TELANGANA SET 2022)

1. Article 148 provides for an independent office of the CAG

2. The CAG has powers in relation to the accounts of the Union and the States

3. The CAG holds the office at the pleasure of the President of India

Codes:

82. Consider the following statements with reference to the 103rd Constitution (Amendment) Act, 2019 and choose the correct code: (TELANGANA SET 2022)

1. It amended Article 15 and Article 16 of the Indian Constitution.

2. It enabled the introduction of the 10% EWS (Economically Weaker Section) Quota.

83. Consider the following statements regarding the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes: (JAMMU & KASHMIR SET October 2023)

(i) The 88th Constitutional Amendment Act provided for a separate National Commission for Scheduled Tribes.

(ii)  As per Article 338A, the Commission shall consist of a Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and three other members.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

84. Consider the following facts about Comptroller and Auditor General of India: (JAMMU & KASHMIR SET October 2023)

(i) He is appointed by the Prime Minister of India

(ii) Article 148 is associated with the office of Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

(iii) The reports of CAG are submitted to Parliament of India

(iv) CAG conducts audits of the government accounts.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

85. Which of the following Article has the provisions of Right to Education in Constitution? (JAMMU & KASHMIR SET JUNE 2022)

86. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is the supreme audit institution of India. Identify the correct statement about the CAG: (JAMMU & KASHMIR SET October 2023)

(i) Office of CAG is established under Article 148 of the Constitution of India.

(ii) In 1971, the Union Government enacted the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971.

(iii) Term of the office of CAG is 5 years.

(iv) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the President of India.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

87. A Governor (India) is a constitutional head of a state of India. Identify the correct statement about Governor of state: (JAMMU & KASHMIR SET October 2023)

(i) Governor is appointed by the President of India.

(ii) Governors exist in the states, while lieutenant governors and administrators exist at district level.

(iii)  A Governor acts as the constitutional head and takes all his decisions based on the advice of chief minister and his council of ministers

(iv) Article 157 and Article 158 of the Constitution of India specify eligibility requirements for the post of govermor.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

88. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (a) and the other labelled as Reason (r). Read the statements and choose the correct answer from the codes given below: (JAMMU & KASHMIR SET October 2023)

Assertion (a): There shall be a High Court in each state under Article 212 of the Indian Constitution.

Reason (r): Parliament of India has the power to establish a common High Court for two or more states.

89. Elections have been accorded constitutional recognition under Article: (RAJASTHAN SET 2012 PART 2)

90. Panchayati Raj Institutions were given constitutional status under Article: (RAJASTHAN SET 2012 PART 2)

91. The President's rule in a state is imposed under Article : (RAJASTHAN SET 2012 PART 1)

92. Which conditions of Emergency are mentioned in the Article 355 of the Constitution? (RAJASTHAN SET 2013 PART 2)

93. According Article 78 of the Constitution, the furnishing of information to the President is Prime Minister's: (RAJASTHAN SET 2013 PART 2)

94. Among the following, what is not included in the judicial interpretation of the Article 14 of the Constitution providing 'Equality before law'? (RAJASTHAN SET 2013 PART 2)

95. Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional Amendments : (RAJASTHAN SET 2013 PART 1)

(a) Article 368 only describes the procedure of Constitutional Amendments, not the Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution.

(b) First Constitutional Amendment was enacted by the Unicameral Parliament.

(c) The assent of the President to such Constitutional amendments is only ceremonial.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

96. Before 2019, the President could make a proclamation of Financial Emergency under Article 360 : (GUJARAT SET 2017 AUG PAPER II)

97. Under what age does Article 24 of the Indian Constitution prohibit child labour in hazardous employment: (GUJARAT SET 2017 AUG PAPER II)

98. Under provisions of which of the following Article of the Constitution of India, Governor can reserve a bill for the consideration of the President of India? (Rajasthan SET 2020)

99. Consider the following statements given by supreme Court of India about judgment delivered in the S.R. Bommai versus Union of India (1994) case: (Rajasthan SET 2020)

(i) The power conferred by Article 356 upon the President is conditional power. It is not an It is no absolute power.

(ii) The proclamation under Article 356(1) is immune from judicial review.

100. According to the Article 128 of the Constitution of India, attendance of retired judges at the sittings of the Supreme Court needs the - (Rajasthan SET 2020)

101. In which Article of the Constitution of India is the provision related to the Audit of accounts of Panchayats? (Rajasthan SET 2020)

102. Under Article 276 of the Constitution of India, the State Legislature can make laws related to tax on which of the following: (Rajasthan SET 2020)

(A) on professions

(B) on trades

(C) on employments

Correct answer is 

103. Under which of the following Article of the Constitution of India, the legislature of the state may establish the contingency fund of the state'? (Rajasthan SET 2020)

104. Which of the following word is not mentioned in the 'Article 51- A(g)' of the Constitution of India? (Rajasthan SET 2020)

105. As mentioned in the Article 37 of the Constitution of India', Directive principles of State Policy are (Rajasthan SET 2020)

106. By which of the the following Constitution Amendment Act the term 'reasonable restrictions' inserted in Clause (2) of Article 19 of the Constitution of India? (Rajasthan SET 2020)